I'm trying to investigate the interplay between the norm and cone of positive elements in ordered Banach spaces. In particular, I would like a nice characterisationcharacterization of when the norm of a positive operator can be obtained as a supremum of norms over all norm 1 positive elements (see 1. below). It is easy to show that this always holds for Banach lattices, but gets tricky when trying to prove this more generally.
To be a bit more detailed, let $X$ be a Banach space with a cone (or wedge) of 'positive' elements, denoted by $X_{+}$; $X$ is then called an ordered Banach space and $x\leq y$ means $y-x\in X_{+}$. I will call $X_{+}$ generating if $X=X_{+}-X_{-}$; proper if $X_{+}\cap(-X_{+})=\{0\}$; and normal if $0\leq x\leq y$ implies $\|x\|\leq\|y\|$. A bounded linear operator $T:X\to X$ is called positive, if $x\geq 0$ implies $Tx\geq 0$. An ordered Banach space with the property that every positive operator satisfies $$\|T\|=\sup\{\|Tx\|:x\in X_{+},\|x\|=1\}$$ I will say has the positive operator property, i.e., the norms of positive operators are completely determined by their behavior on the cone.
I have a conjecture that something like the following holdsMy question is:
Let $X$ be an ordered Banach space with a closed, proper, generating, normal cone. Then (1) below, is equivalent with (2) AND (3) simultaneously. I.e., (1)$\Leftrightarrow$(2)$\wedge$(3). Is there a characterization of the positive operator property in terms of the cone-norm interaction?
- For any bounded, positive operator $T:X\to X$, $\|T\|=\sup_{x\in X_{+},\|x\|=1}\|Tx\|$
- For all $x\in X$ there exist $X\ni x_{1},x_{2}\geq0$ such that $x=x_{1}-x_{2}$ and $\|x_{j}\|\leq\|x\|$ for $j=1,2$.
- For all $x\in X$ and $X\ni a,b\geq0$, $-a\leq x\leq b$ implies $\|x\|\leq\max \{ \|a\|,\|b\| \}$.
Thus far I have found a few sufficient conditions:
- For all $x\in X$ there exist $X\ni x_{1},x_{2}\geq0$ such that $x=x_{1}-x_{2}$ and $\|x_{j}\|\leq\|x\|$ for $j=1,2$.
- For all $x\in X$ and $X\ni a,b\geq0$, $-a\leq x\leq b$ implies $\|x\|\leq\max \{ \|a\|,\|b\| \}$.
That (2) and (3) together imply (1)the positive operator property.
Another sufficient condition is easyhaving the property that for any $x\in X$ it holds that $\|x\| = \inf \{\|z_+ + z_-\|:z_\pm \geq 0;x=z_+ -z_-\}$. ThatBeing a Banach lattice is sufficient to have this property (1) impliesby invoking the property (2$\|x\|=\||x|\|$) also holds, one can provebut seems to be a bit more general since $\mathbb{R}^3$ with the contrapositive statement by constructing a positive operator that doesn't satisfyEuclidean norm and the `ice-cream cone' $\{(x_1,x_2,x_3):x_1\geq (x_2^2+x_3^2)^{1/2} \}$ (1which is not a lattice), when one assumes that also has this property (2)so being a lattice is falsenot necessary for the positive operator property).
That (1) implies (3) remains just outI've been unable to prove that any of reachthese conditions are necessary. It could be thatThe last one had been my best bet so far, but I'm missing some essential assumption on beginning to doubt the normexistence of $X$. (I've played around with also assuming (what I've sometimes seen called) a Fremlin normnice list of conditions on $X$, meaningthe norm and cone that for all $x\in X$, $\|x\|=\inf \{ \|y\|:y\geq0;-y\leq x\leq y \}$, but with not much luck)together are necessary and sufficient.
EDITUPDATE: By "$T:X\to X$Cleaned it up a positive operator"bit, and posted some new information I of course mean: $x\geq 0$ implies $Tx\geq 0$found since first posting. I found no mention in any literature to this question. I also asked around a bit with no hits from people who are a bit in the know, so it seems to be wide open. Gets the 'open-problem' tag.