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A curious limit involving On prime numbers and composite numbers

Post Closed as "not a real question" by Bill Johnson, Henry Cohn, Dan Petersen, David Loeffler, Pietro Majer
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user20174
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A curious relationship betweenlimit involving prime numbers and composite numbers

Let $p_n$ be the n-th prime number and $c_n$ be the n-th composite number. Prove thatWe have

$$ \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{n} \sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{p_n^2}{p_n^2 + p_r^2} = \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{n} \sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{c_n^2}{c_n^2 + c_r^2} = \frac{\pi}{4}. $$

The beauty of the above result is that the first limit is a series over prime and the other is a series over composites which are exactly what primes are not, yet they converge to the same limit. The same resultSimilar results hold if the sequence of primes (or composites) are replaced by the sequence of natural number. Yet the two limits are equal. This is a specific example of a general family of results of this kind.

The question is to not merely to prove the above result but understand why such a relationships hold. I have been working on this and wanted to share with and learn from other number theorists. Has anyone seen similar results in mathematics literature? Any reference would be helpful.

A curious relationship between prime numbers and composite numbers

Let $p_n$ be the n-th prime number and $c_n$ be the n-th composite number. Prove that

$$ \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{n} \sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{p_n^2}{p_n^2 + p_r^2} = \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{n} \sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{c_n^2}{c_n^2 + c_r^2} = \frac{\pi}{4}. $$

The beauty of the above result is that the first limit is a series over prime and the other is a series over composites which are exactly what primes are not, yet they converge to the same limit. The same result hold if the sequence of primes (or composites) are replaced by the sequence of natural number. Yet the two limits are equal. This is a specific example of a general family of results of this kind.

The question is to not merely to prove the above result but understand why such a relationships hold. I have been working on this and wanted to share with and learn from other number theorists. Has anyone seen similar results in mathematics literature? Any reference would be helpful.

A curious limit involving prime numbers and composite numbers

Let $p_n$ be the n-th prime number and $c_n$ be the n-th composite number. We have

$$ \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{n} \sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{p_n^2}{p_n^2 + p_r^2} = \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{n} \sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{c_n^2}{c_n^2 + c_r^2} = \frac{\pi}{4}. $$

The beauty of the above result is that the first limit is a series over prime and the other is a series over composites. Similar results hold if the sequence of primes (or composites) are replaced by the sequence of natural number. This is a specific example of a general family of results of this kind.

The question is understand why such a relationships hold. I have been working on this and wanted to share with and learn from other number theorists. Has anyone seen similar results in mathematics literature? Any reference would be helpful.

Post Undeleted by user20174
Post Deleted by user20174
Source Link
user20174
  • 459
  • 5
  • 16

A curious relationship between prime numbers and composite numbers

Let $p_n$ be the n-th prime number and $c_n$ be the n-th composite number. Prove that

$$ \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{n} \sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{p_n^2}{p_n^2 + p_r^2} = \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{n} \sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{c_n^2}{c_n^2 + c_r^2} = \frac{\pi}{4}. $$

The beauty of the above result is that the first limit is a series over prime and the other is a series over composites which are exactly what primes are not, yet they converge to the same limit. The same result hold if the sequence of primes (or composites) are replaced by the sequence of natural number. Yet the two limits are equal. This is a specific example of a general family of results of this kind.

The question is to not merely to prove the above result but understand why such a relationships hold. I have been working on this and wanted to share with and learn from other number theorists. Has anyone seen similar results in mathematics literature? Any reference would be helpful.