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Assume that $X$ and $Y$ are two Banach spaces, now we have that $X$ is included in $Y$, in the sense that $\forall a\in X$, we have $a\in Y$. Then can we get that $X$ is embedded in $Y$, namely, $\forall b\in Y, \Vert b \Vert_Y \le C\cdot \Vert b \Vert_X$?

I think there is no problem for the statement of this question by Nate Eldredge.

Assume that $X$ and $Y$ are two Banach spaces, now we have that $X$ is included in $Y$, in the sense that $\forall a\in X$, we have $a\in Y$. Then can we get that $X$ is embedded in $Y$, namely, $\forall b\in Y, \Vert b \Vert_Y \le C\cdot \Vert b \Vert_X$?

Assume that $X$ and $Y$ are two Banach spaces, now we have that $X$ is included in $Y$, in the sense that $\forall a\in X$, we have $a\in Y$. Then can we get that $X$ is embedded in $Y$, namely, $\forall b\in Y, \Vert b \Vert_Y \le C\cdot \Vert b \Vert_X$?

I think there is no problem for the statement of this question by Nate Eldredge.

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Assume that X$X$ and Y$Y$ are two Banach spaces, now we have that X$X$ is included in Y$Y$, in the sense that $\forall a\in X$, we have $a\in Y$. Then can we get that X$X$ is embedded in Y$Y$, namely, $\forall b\in Y, \Vert b \Vert_Y \le C\cdot \Vert b \Vert_X$?

Assume that X and Y are two Banach spaces, now we have that X is included in Y, can we get that X is embedded in Y?

Assume that $X$ and $Y$ are two Banach spaces, now we have that $X$ is included in $Y$, in the sense that $\forall a\in X$, we have $a\in Y$. Then can we get that $X$ is embedded in $Y$, namely, $\forall b\in Y, \Vert b \Vert_Y \le C\cdot \Vert b \Vert_X$?

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Willie Wong
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Post Closed as "not a real question" by Bill Johnson, Andrew Stacey, Martin Brandenburg, Andrey Rekalo, Yemon Choi
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