Assume that $X$ and $Y$ are two Banach spaces, now we have that $X$ is included in $Y$, in the sense that $\forall a\in X$, we have $a\in Y$. Then can we get that $X$ is embedded in $Y$, namely, $\forall b\in Y, \Vert b \Vert_Y \le C\cdot \Vert b \Vert_X$?

I think there is no problem for the statement of this question by Nate Eldredge.