Let $f\in C([0,1],[0,1])$, be such that: $$\forall x\in [0,1],\exists k\in \mathbb N, f^{\circ k}(x)=0.$$$$\forall x\in [0,1], \; \exists k\in \mathbb N, \; f^{\circ k}(x)=0.$$
Is it true that $f$ is nilpotent (i.e., that there is some $k$ such that $f^{\circ k}=0$)?
PSHere :$f^{\circ k}$ denotes the $f^{\circ 2}(x)=f\circ f (x)$$k$th iterate of $f$.