Is it possible to deduce that $$(f \ast K)'' \in L^1(\mathbb R)$$ if $f \in L^1 \cap L^\infty(\mathbb R)$ and $K \in BV(\mathbb R)$? What I can prove is that $(f \ast K)' \in L^1 \cap L^\infty$. Is the bound on the second derivative also true?
If the above does not suffice, is the result true with the additional assumption $f \in BV(\mathbb R)$?