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Post Closed as "Not suitable for this site" by Chris Wuthrich, R.P., Alex Degtyarev, Jan-Christoph Schlage-Puchta, Alexey Ustinov
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The Thin Whistler
The Thin Whistler
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Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all good primes $p$?

Let $E$ be an elliptic curve over $\mathbb{Q}.$

Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all good primes $p$?

Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all good primes $p$?

Let $E$ be an elliptic curve over $\mathbb{Q}.$

Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all good primes $p$?

Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all primes $p$?

Let $E$ be an elliptic curve over $\mathbb{Q}.$

Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all primes $p$?

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The Thin Whistler
The Thin Whistler
  • 1.8k
  • 12
  • 23

Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all good primes $p$?

Let $E$ be an elliptic curve over $\mathbb{Q}.$

Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all good primes $p$?