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edited Sep 26, 2016 at 13:37

The Thin Whistler

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Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all primes $p$?

Let $E$ be an elliptic curve over $\mathbb{Q}.$

Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all primes $p$?

ag.algebraic-geometry nt.number-theory elliptic-curves

asked Sep 26, 2016 at 13:28

The Thin Whistler

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