Let $E$ be an elliptic curve over $\mathbb{Q}.$
Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all good primes $p$?
Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all good primes $p$?
The Thin Whistler
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