Given an operator $A \in \mathcal L(B)$, $B$ being a Banach space, I came across the following question: assume $dom(A)=range(A)$$\mathrm{dom}(A)=\mathrm{range}(A)$, $dom(A)$$\mathrm{dom}(A)$ dense in $B$.
Under which conditions is it possible to obtain the boundedness of $A$ from the boundedness of $A^2$. It is clear that "in most" cases this is not possible but maybe it works for something more than the identity?