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Let $\mathcal{A}$ be a $*$-algebra with unit $1_{\mathcal{A}}$. As in the $\mathrm{C}^*$-setting, a projection is an element $p\in\mathcal{A}$ such that $p=p^2=p^*$. A partition of unity is a finite set of projections $\{p_i\}_{i=1}^N\subset \mathcal{A}$ such that: $$\sum_{i=1}^N p_i=1_{\mathcal{A}}.$$

Is there an example of a partition of unity such that the projections are not pairwise-orthogonal?


If $\mathcal{A}$ is a $\mathrm{C}^*$-algebra (or presumably, if there exists a *-representation $\pi(\mathcal{A})\subset B(\mathsf{H})$, or something similarly and suitably embedding the partition of unity in a $\mathrm{C}^*$-algebra), then it is well known that the projections in a partition of unity are pairwise-orthogonal. In the theory of quantum permutation groups, there is an approach that uses universal *-algebras generated by various partitions of unity, and because it is believed that the answer to the above question is yes, the orthogonality relations $p_ip_j=\delta_{ij}\,p_i$ are added at that point (where in the universal $\mathrm{C}^*$-algebra approach, such relations are automatic).

I have asked some people for an explicit example/counterexample and thus far nobody knows beyond "person $X$ says there is one".

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    $\begingroup$ This appears as Problem 5.2 in Algebras, Synchronous Games and Chromatic Numbers of Graphs. A few paragraphs before that, it is noted that you will at least need 4 projections for a potential counterexample. The paper is from 2017, and I don't know if this has been resolved since then. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 29 at 6:55
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    $\begingroup$ The counterexample attributed in that paper to Heydar Radjavi should at least give enough a somehwat non-explicit counterexampe: it implies the desired non-orthogonality in the algebra with presentation $\langle p_1, \dots, p_4 \mid p_i^2 = p_i \rangle$, and that's enough because this algebra is clearly a $*$-algebra if you make the generators self-adjoint. So it seems to me that the authors could immediately have resolved Problem 5.2 in the negative. Am I missing something? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 29 at 8:04
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    $\begingroup$ Well, all I'm saying is that having an example as claimed in the paper would be enough to answer the question. To add further to the mystery: the orthogonality holds automatically for all $N$ in every finite-dimensional algebra (without involution). This is because it holds in matrix algebras, and every finite-dimensional algebra embeds into a matrix algebra. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 29 at 9:21
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    $\begingroup$ @TobiasFritz I think you also need an additional relation stating $p_1 + \cdots + p_4 = 1$? But yeah, all the relations are preserved under reversal of words, so reversing words indeed defines an involution on it. I wonder why the authors didn’t notice this. $\endgroup$
    – David Gao
    Commented Jan 29 at 11:20
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    $\begingroup$ @DavidGao: whoops, right, I indeed forgot to include the most important relation :) $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 29 at 13:21

1 Answer 1

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The following arguments are perhaps not as explicit as you might like, but at least they show that orthogonality is not automatic for $N \ge 5$.

  • Consider first the purely algebraic case without involution. For this, Example 4.2 of a paper by Bart, Ehrhardt and Silbermann gives non-orthogonal idempotents $p_1, \ldots, p_4$ summing to $0$. Trivailly, using $p_5 = 1$ in addition results in five idempotents summing to $1$ and violating the orthogonality.

  • Now we have a complex algebra with idempotents $p_1, \dots, p_5$ such that $p_1 + \cdots + p_5 = 1$, but such that the orthogonality relation $p_i p_j = 0$ for $i \neq j$ does not hold. This implies that the orthogonality does not hold in the universal algebra $$\langle p_1, \dots, p_5 \mid p_i^2 = p_i, \; p_1 + \cdots + p_5 = 1\rangle$$ either. But this universal algebra is such that the relations only involve palindromes, and therefore we can define an involution $*$ by reversing every word in the generators and extending conjugate linearly. In particular, this makes the generators $p_i$ become self-adjoint, and we therefore have the desired counterexample.

It seems plausible that the construction of Bart, Ehrhardt and Silbermann could be adapted to produce $p_1 + \dots + p_4 = 1$ already, in which case a counterexample with $N = 4$ would follow.

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    $\begingroup$ Yes. the involution amounts to choosing a homomorphism to its (complex conjugate) opposite algebra, and this follows from an application of the universal property defined by the presentation. You cannot always do this, for example for $\langle a, b \mid a b = 1\rangle$ you clearly do not get a homomorphism to the opposite algebra by mapping each generator to itself. As mentioned in the answer, it works in the case at hand because the relations only involve palindromes. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 30 at 6:42
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    $\begingroup$ Uhm not exactly, I'm not trying to construct an involution on $A$, but only on the universal algebra $B$ (where the involution is your $\tau$, provided that your opp also involves complex conjugation in order to make the involution conjugate linear). Like you, I'm also skeptical about $A$ having an involution. Having an involution on $B$ is enough because the generating projections in $B$ are non-orthogonal, by virtue of the $\pi(p_i)$ being non-orthogonal in $A$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 30 at 7:05
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    $\begingroup$ OK I understand that the $\pi$ is just an algebra homomorphism. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 30 at 7:16
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    $\begingroup$ Good point, then I'm confused as well... Perhaps let us know if you figure it out? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 31 at 7:15
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    $\begingroup$ Ah yes, I am stupid. Two of those maps have a $-1-x$ and they are not operators on that Hilbert space... and if we change the Hilbert space appropriately then they are not bounded. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 31 at 7:20

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