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Jan 30 at 6:43 vote accept JP McCarthy
Jan 29 at 19:54 answer added Tobias Fritz timeline score: 7
Jan 29 at 19:43 comment added David Gao I’m thinking it might be possible to directly prove, using perhaps a combinatorial argument, in the free $\ast$-algebra generated by four self-adjoint idempotents $p_1, \cdots, p_4$ with relation $p_1 + \cdots + p_4 = 1$, you have $p_1p_2 \neq 0$. The algebra in question is the free product of four copies of $\mathbb{C}^2$, mod the kernel generated by $p_1 + \cdots + p_4 - 1$. It’s just a matter of showing $p_1p_2$ is not in the kernel - feels certainly doable, no?
Jan 29 at 13:21 comment added Tobias Fritz @DavidGao: whoops, right, I indeed forgot to include the most important relation :)
Jan 29 at 11:20 comment added David Gao @TobiasFritz I think you also need an additional relation stating $p_1 + \cdots + p_4 = 1$? But yeah, all the relations are preserved under reversal of words, so reversing words indeed defines an involution on it. I wonder why the authors didn’t notice this.
Jan 29 at 9:21 comment added Tobias Fritz Well, all I'm saying is that having an example as claimed in the paper would be enough to answer the question. To add further to the mystery: the orthogonality holds automatically for all $N$ in every finite-dimensional algebra (without involution). This is because it holds in matrix algebras, and every finite-dimensional algebra embeds into a matrix algebra.
Jan 29 at 8:55 comment added JP McCarthy @TobiasFritz I am not sure. I guess my question could include... does anyone know Radjavi's example?
Jan 29 at 8:29 comment added Tobias Fritz Of course not, but the with that presentation clearly does (you just reverse all words), no?
Jan 29 at 8:11 comment added JP McCarthy @TobiasFritz I don't think an algebra necessarily admits an involution.
Jan 29 at 8:04 comment added Tobias Fritz The counterexample attributed in that paper to Heydar Radjavi should at least give enough a somehwat non-explicit counterexampe: it implies the desired non-orthogonality in the algebra with presentation $\langle p_1, \dots, p_4 \mid p_i^2 = p_i \rangle$, and that's enough because this algebra is clearly a $*$-algebra if you make the generators self-adjoint. So it seems to me that the authors could immediately have resolved Problem 5.2 in the negative. Am I missing something?
Jan 29 at 7:11 comment added JP McCarthy @TobiasFritz IIRC person $X$ is a coauthor on that paper. I wonder if the people I asked confused [17] with an answer to Problem 5.2? Or maybe person $X$ found a counterexample since 2017. Thanks for comment.
Jan 29 at 6:55 comment added Tobias Fritz This appears as Problem 5.2 in Algebras, Synchronous Games and Chromatic Numbers of Graphs. A few paragraphs before that, it is noted that you will at least need 4 projections for a potential counterexample. The paper is from 2017, and I don't know if this has been resolved since then.
Jan 29 at 6:31 history asked JP McCarthy CC BY-SA 4.0