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An irrational number is a real number that cannot be expressed in the form $\frac{n}{m}$ where $n$ and $m$ are integers.
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votes
Has Apéry's proof of the irrationality of $\zeta(3)$ ever been used to prove the irrationali...
There is a new paper on the arxiv (https://arxiv.org/abs/2408.15403) claiming a proof that
$$L(2,\chi_3) = \sum \frac{1}{(3k+1)^2} - \frac{1}{(3k+2)^2}$$
is irrational. From what I can tell it is dire …