Search Results
| Search type | Search syntax |
|---|---|
| Tags | [tag] |
| Exact | "words here" |
| Author |
user:1234 user:me (yours) |
| Score |
score:3 (3+) score:0 (none) |
| Answers |
answers:3 (3+) answers:0 (none) isaccepted:yes hasaccepted:no inquestion:1234 |
| Views | views:250 |
| Code | code:"if (foo != bar)" |
| Sections |
title:apples body:"apples oranges" |
| URL | url:"*.example.com" |
| Saves | in:saves |
| Status |
closed:yes duplicate:no migrated:no wiki:no |
| Types |
is:question is:answer |
| Exclude |
-[tag] -apples |
| For more details on advanced search visit our help page | |
Results tagged with orlicz-spaces
Search options questions only
not deleted
user 158681
3
votes
1
answer
73
views
When do Orlicz norms tend to the uniform norm?
It is well known that the $p$-norms tend to the $\infty$-norm, in that if $\lVert f \rVert_q < \infty$ for some $q \ge 1$ then $\lVert f \rVert_p \to \lVert f \rVert_\infty$ as $p \to \infty$. Does t …
- 128k