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Riemannian Geometry is a subfield of Differential Geometry, which specifically studies "Riemannian Manifolds", manifolds with "Riemannian Metrics", which means that they are equipped with continuous inner products.
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$(M,g)$ is complete iff $(\tilde{M},\tilde{g})$ is complete (non-Riemannian version)
I'm not sure if this question is too low level for Math Overflow (so feel free to move this to SE if you think it is).
Inspired by this and this question I'm wondering if the following statement is a …