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Anand
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Can singular measures be viewed as vanishing distributions? (Answer No!)

Hello,

Here is my original question: let $\mu$ be a singular measure with respect to the Lebesgue's measure on $R$. Is it true that $\int \psi \mu(d x)=0$ for any test function $\psi\in C_c^\infty(R)$ (smooth functions with compact support)?

Following the suggestion by André Henriques, I will put the answer in the answer box. :-)

Thanks again for everyone! :-)

Anand

p.s. this is related to my previous post.

Anand
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