If $m, n$ are two different positive integers, is it true that the ratio $\displaystyle \frac{\log\log m}{\log\log n}$ is necessarily irrational? By $\log$ I mean the logarithm in base $e$ (not base $10$). I guess it is irrational, but I don't know why?
Can $(\log\log m)/(\log\log n)$ be rational?
asd
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