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Math Jaxed
Daniele Tampieri
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Is sin(sin(sin(...(x))...) = 0 for all x?

I'll write it formally:
Let $f(1,x) = \sin(x)$,
Let $f(n+1,x) = \sin\big(f(n,x)\big)$ for $n\in \Bbb N$ with $n>1$.
What is the limit as $n \to \infty$?

It's fairly easy to prove that the absolute value of $f(n,x)$ is decreasing for every constant $x$ as $n$ is increasing, so the limit exists. From what I calculated, it seems like $f(\infty,x)= 0$ for all $x$. Does someone have a proof for that?

Guy Dror
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