Skip to main content
4 of 6
fix some confusions in optimization objective (*)

Relation between Optimal Transport Cost and Difference between Topological Invariants?

I was working on some mathematics of Wasserstein GAN and found out a seemingly interesting research problem but I am not quite sure whether it has already been studied in some recent literature of Optimal Transport Theory (As far as I know, it hardly is)

The observation is as follows (which has been validated with some toy simulations).

==================================================================

Problem (not rigorously stated)

Let $\mu, \nu$ probabilistic measures on regular manifolds $\mathcal{M}, \mathcal{N}$, $C^{\infty}(\mathcal{M}, \mathcal{N})$ the set of continuous mapping from $\mathcal{M}$ to $\mathcal{N}$, and $\Pi(\mu,\nu)$ the set of measures on $\mathcal{M}\times\mathcal{N}$ s.t. its marginal distributions are respectively $\mu, \nu$.

Consider the following optimization problem

$$ (*) = \min_{T\in{C^{\infty}(\mathcal{M}, \mathcal{N})}} \inf_{\gamma\in\Pi(\mu,\nu)} \int \|x(T(p))- x(q)\|^{2} d\gamma(p,q) $$ where the cost function can be considered as the $L_2$ distance on $\mathcal{N}$'s total space as a real vector space.

My question is that whether $(*) \propto h(\chi(\mathcal{M}), \chi(\mathcal{N}))$ where $h$ is certain metric function and $\chi(\cdot)$ denotes Euler characteristic. Generally, would it be possible that the minimum cost of the Wasserstein game is deeply related with the difference between some topological invariants of underlying manifolds'?

==================================================================

Look forward to any feedbacks and welcome discussions and potential references :D. I am willing to provide details of my toy experiments if one is interested in this problem.