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4 votes
1 answer
294 views

Why should we expect this odd behavior of negative binomial distributions?

In independent Bernoulli trials with probability $p$ of success on each trial, let $X$ be the number of failures before the $n$th success. Then $$ \Pr(X=x) = \binom{-n}{\phantom{+}x} (-q)^x p^n \text{ ...
Michael Hardy's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
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Visualization PDF of distribution defined by quantiles

How can I visualise PDF of distribution defined by quantiles, that I predict with my neural network? Now I'm passing quantiles to the histogram, but I don't think it is the correct way for visualising....
Bc. Martin Kubovčík's user avatar