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Is a mixture of real analytic functions again analytic?

Let $$h : \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}^+.$$ Suppose that for each $x$, $h(x, y)$ is a real analytic function of $y$. Let $\mu(dx)$ be a finite measure on $\mathbb{R}$, and for each $y$, suppose that $$...
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