Skip to main content

All Questions

1 question with no upvoted or accepted answers
Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
7 votes
0 answers
160 views

Is it always possible to write a derived manifold (in the sense of Spivak) as a homotopy colimit of principal derived manifolds?

Is it always possible to write a derived manifold as a homotopy colimit of principal derived manifolds (i.e. zero sets of smooth functions)? This is true for schemes and derived schemes, so it seems ...
John Rached's user avatar