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Why does $p_{n}(i,1)=1$ so often where the polynomials $p_{n}$ are obtained from the classical Laver tables
So I was doing some computer calculations with the classical Laver tables and I found polynomials $p_{n}(x,y)$ such that $p_{n}(i,1)=1$ for many $n$.
The $n$-th classical Laver table is the unique ...
