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8 votes
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A modified version of the converse to the Sard's Theorem

When I learned Sard's Theorem in differential topology by myself, I was thinking whether it would be possible to prove a converse version of the theorem. That is to say, can we somehow show that each (...
pureorapplied's user avatar
6 votes
0 answers
136 views

A particular case of the general converse to the preimage (submanifold) theorem

I was thinking whether it would be possible to develop a converse to the preimage theorem in differential topology and I found the following post: When is a submanifold of $\mathbf R^n$ given by ...
geooranalysis's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
305 views

Are homotopy equivalent manifolds with homeomorpic boundaries themselves homeomorphic?

Let $f:M \to M′$ be a homotopy equivalence of topological manifolds with boundary such that $dim(M)=dim(M′)$ and $f:\partial M \to \partial M′$ is a homeomorphism. Does this imply the existence of a ...
Dean Barber's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
178 views

Proving that two given functionally structured spaces are isomorphic

The relevant definitions are listed below. They can be found in Chapter VI, pages 297-298 of Bredon's Introduction to Compact Transformation Groups; and Section 2, Chapter II of Bredon's Topology and ...
John's user avatar
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