All Questions
1 question
1
vote
0
answers
169
views
Why is $\overline{\mathbb{F}_p}((t))$ transcendental over $\mathbb{F}_p((t))$?
Why is $\overline{\mathbb{F}_p}((t))$ transcendental over $\mathbb{F}_p((t))$ ?
I guess $\overline{\mathbb{F}_p}((t))$ is not unramified over $\mathbb{F}_p((t))$ because $\overline{\mathbb{F}_p}((t))$ ...
- 1,541