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Why is $\overline{\mathbb{F}_p}((t))$ transcendental over $\mathbb{F}_p((t))$?
Why is $\overline{\mathbb{F}_p}((t))$ transcendental over $\mathbb{F}_p((t))$ ?
I guess $\overline{\mathbb{F}_p}((t))$ is not unramified over $\mathbb{F}_p((t))$ because $\overline{\mathbb{F}_p}((t))$ ...
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