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Let $f_1,\dots,f_n \in L^2(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{R})$ be $n$ mutually orthogonal functions with $\int f^2_i =1$ such that $|\{x \in \mathbb{R} | f_i(x) = 0\}| = 0$ for any $i \in \{1, \dots,n\}$. Does ...