Hi everybody,
recall that a ring $A$ with unit has the invariant basis property if all bases of a given f.g. free $A$-module have the same number of elements. It is equivalent to say that every invertible matrix with entries in $A$ is a square matrix.
It is known that if for all $n\geq 1,$ every surjective endomorphism of $A^n$ is bijective, then $A$ has the invariant basis property.
Q1: is the converse true? Another way to put this is: if $A$ has the invariant basis property, and if $e_1,...,e_n$ span $A^n$, is it a basis of $A^n$?
Q2: Assume that $A$ has the invariant basis property. Is it true that if $e_1,....,e_m\in A^n$ are linearly independent, then $m\leq n$ ?
Q3: Assume that $A$ has the invariant basis property. Is it true that if $e_1,....,e_m\in A^n$ span $A^n$, then $m\geq n$ ?
Thanks!
greg