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It is well-known that a premeasure $\mu_0$ (possibly taking infinite values) on a ring of subsets $\Omega_0$ of a set $X$ can be extended to a complete measure space $(X, \Omega_C, \mu_C)$ ($C$ for Carathéodory) where $\mu_C$ is the restriction of the induced outer measure $\mu^*$ and $\Omega_C$ is the set of all Carathéodory-measurable sets $M$, i.e., $\mu^*(E) = \mu^*(E\cap M) + \mu^*(E\setminus M)$ for all $E\subseteq X$.

Nik Weaver (in Measure Theory and Functional Analysis, Chapter 2, Theorem 2.14) gives an alternate complete extension of the premeasure $(X, \Omega_0, \mu_0)$—let's call it $(X, \Omega_N, \mu_N)$ ($N$ for Nik). I want to compare and hopefully show that the two extensions are the same.

Let me first describe Nik's approach. For him, $\mu_0$ is finite-valued, so let's assume this throughout. He breaks his construction into two cases:

  1. $X\in\Omega_0$: Here he declares $\Omega_N$ to be the set of all subsets $M$ of $X$ which can be approximated arbitrarily well by those in $\Omega_0$, i.e., for each $\epsilon > 0$, there exists an $A\in\Omega_0$ such that $\mu^*(M\mathbin{\Delta} A) < \epsilon$. Further, he declares $\mu_N$ to be the restriction of $\mu^*$. Then he shows that $(X, \Omega_N, \mu_N)$ indeed is a complete measure space extending the premeasure.

  2. $X\notin\Omega_0$: Here he first defines premeasures $(A, \Omega_0^A, \mu_0^A)$ for each $A\in\Omega_0$ where $\Omega_0^A$ is the set of all those subsets of $\Omega_0$ that are also contained in $A$, and $\mu_0^A$ to simply be the restriction of $\mu_0$. By first case, we then have complete measure spaces $(A, \Omega_N^A, \mu^A_N)$ extending $(A, \Omega_0^A, \mu_0^A)$ for each $A\in\Omega_0$. Finally, he defines \begin{align*} \Omega_N & := \bigcap_{A\in\Omega_0}\{M\subseteq X : M\cap A\in \Omega^A_N\}\text{, and}\\ \mu_N(M) & := \sup_{A\in\Omega_0}\mu_N^A(M\cap A) \end{align*} and shows that $(X, \Omega_N, \mu_N)$ is a complete extension of the original premeasure.

Question: Obviously, one would like to compare Nik's extension to that of Carathéodory. I have successfully shown that the two are equivalent in the first case, namely when $X\in\Omega_0$. However, I have been on the second case for quite some time now, with little progress except showing that $\mu_N\le\mu^*$ on $\Omega_N$. Thus what remains to be shown is the reverse inequality and that $\Omega_N = \Omega_C$. I appreciate any thoughts on this problem.


For the second case, a nice lemma (from Nik's proof) that might come in handy is the following: If $M\in\Omega_N$ is contained in both $A$ and $B$ of $\Omega_0$, then $\mu^A_N(M) = \mu^B_N(M)$. This helps in proving that $\mu_N$ actually extends $\mu_0$.

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$\newcommand\Om\Omega\newcommand\N{\Bbb N}\newcommand\R{\Bbb R}\newcommand\M{\mathscr M}\newcommand\A{\mathscr A}$The equality $\Om_N=\Om_C$ follows immediately from Theorem 1.4 and Remark 1.5 in this paper or its preprint version, where a more general setting is considered -- without requiring what is called the premeasure in the OP to be finite. In that paper, $\M,\M_{\mathsf{Ca}},\A,m,m^*$ correspond to $\Om_N,\Om_C,\Om_0,\mu_0,\mu^*$ in the OP, respectively. (Also, in that paper, the extension of $m$ from $\A$ to $\M$ is defined simply as the restriction of $m^*$ to $\M$.)

However, in general $\mu_N\ne\mu^*|_{\Om_N}$. E.g., let $X=\R$, let $\Om_0$ be the powerset of $\N$, and let $\mu_0$ be any finite measure on $\Om_0$. Then $\Om_N$ is the powerset of $\R$ and for any $M\in\Om_N$ such that $M\not\subseteq\N$ we have $\mu_N(M)\le\mu_N(\N)<\infty=\mu^*(M)$ (because no union of members of $\Om_0$ contains such a set $M$), so that $\mu_N(M)\ne\mu^*(M)$. $\quad\Box$


On the other hand, if $\mu_0$ is $\sigma$-finite, so that $X=\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty A_k$ for some $A_k$'s in $\Om_0$, then $\mu_N=\mu^*|_{\Om_N}$, by the uniqueness of the measure extension -- see e.g. Theorem 1.3 in the mentioned paper.

Moreover, one has the following characterization of the condition $\mu_N=\mu^*|_{\Om_N}$:

Proposition 1: The following three conditions are equivalent to one another:

  1. $\mu_N=\mu^*|_{\Om_N}$.
  2. For any $M\in\Om_N$ such that $\mu_N(M)=0$ there exist $U_1,U_2,\dots$ in $\Om_0$ such that $M\subseteq\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty U_k$.
  3. For any $M\in\Om_N$ such that $\mu_N(M\cap A)=0$ for all $A\in\Om_0$ there exist $U_1,U_2,\dots$ in $\Om_0$ such that $M\subseteq\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty U_k$.

Proof: That conditions 2 and 3 are equivalent to each other follows immediately from the definition of $\mu_N$.

That condition 1 implies condition 2 follows immediately from the definition of $\mu^*$. Indeed, if this implication were false, then for some $M\in\Om_N$ we would have $\mu_N(M)=0$ and $\mu^*(M)=\infty$.

It remains to show that condition 2 implies condition 1. Assume that condition 2 indeed holds. Take any $M\in\Om_N$. We have to show that $\mu_N(M)=\mu^*(M)$. First here, note that $$\mu_N(M)=\sup_{A\in\Om_0}\mu_N(M\cap A) =\sup_{A\in\Om_0}\mu^*(M\cap A)\le\mu^*(M).$$

It remains to show that $\mu^*(M)\le\mu_N(M)$. Here without loss of generality $\mu_N(M)<\infty$. By the definition of $\mu_N$, there is a sequence $(A_k)_{k=1}^\infty$ in $\Om_0$ such that $\mu_N(M\cap A_k)\to\mu_N(M)$. So, $\mu_N(M\cap A)=\mu_N(M)$, where $$A:=\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty A_k=\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty B_k\in\Om_N$$ and $B_k:=A_k\setminus\bigcup_{j=1}^{k-1}A_j\in\Om_0$, so that the $B_k$'s are pairwise disjoint. Therefore and because $\mu_N(M)<\infty$, we have $\mu_N(R)=0$ for $R:=M\setminus A$. So, by condition 2, there exist $U_1,U_2,\dots$ in $\Om_0$ such that $R\subseteq\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty U_k$. So, $$\mu^*(R)=\mu^*\Big(\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty (R\cap U_k)\Big) \le\sum_{k=1}^\infty\mu^*(R\cap U_k) =\sum_{k=1}^\infty\mu_N(R\cap U_k)=0,$$ since $\mu_N(R)=0$. So, $\mu^*(R)=0$ and hence $$\mu^*(M)=\mu^*((M\cap A)\cup R)\le\mu^*(M\cap A)+\mu^*(R) =\mu^*(M\cap A) =\mu^*\Big(\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty(M\cap B_k)\Big) \le\sum_{k=1}^\infty\mu^*(M\cap B_k) =\sum_{k=1}^\infty\mu_N(M\cap B_k) =\mu_N(M\cap A)\le\mu_N(M),$$ so that $\mu^*(M)\le\mu_N(M)$. $\quad\Box$

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  • $\begingroup$ What a complete answer! I am yet to read Proposition 1 above. I am going through your (very interesting!) preprint. $\endgroup$
    – Atom
    Commented Nov 26 at 19:04
  • $\begingroup$ In the preprint, you also compare the "completion" $\mathscr M_{\mathsf{Co}}$ of $\sigma(\mathscr A)$, defined by $\{E\subseteq X\colon \exists S\in\sigma(\mathscr A)\ d_X(E,S)=0\}$. However, this "completion" is in general larger than the standard completion, $\sigma(\mathscr A)\cup\{\text{subsets of $m$-null sets}\}$, correct? $\endgroup$
    – Atom
    Commented Nov 26 at 19:22
  • $\begingroup$ @Atom : Thank you for your appreciation of this answer. Some comments in response to yours: (i) The paper is published, with the content essentially identical to that of the preprint. (ii) The definition of the completion in the paper is standard. For instance, it is equivalent to the one given in Theorem 1.36 in Rudin's book. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 26 at 21:10
  • $\begingroup$ Previous comment continued: (iii) Your "standard completion" is not in general a $\sigma$-algebra. Perhaps, here you meant the claim "In the above construction [...]" in section Construction of a complete measure, but that claim is of course false. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 26 at 21:10
  • $\begingroup$ Previous comment continued: To see why the definition of the completion in my paper is equivalent to the one given in Theorem 1.36 in Rudin's book, you may want to use the last sentence in Proposition 2.3 in the paper. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 26 at 21:43

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