As written, this has no chance. If $A$ isn't invariant, what does it mean to say $T|_A$ is isomorphic to $S$? Even if you restrict to invariant sets, you still have a problem with the positive measure condition: for each $0<\alpha<1$, consider the Lebesgue measure-preserving transformation $T_\alpha(x)=x/\alpha$ if $\in [0,\alpha)$ and $T_\alpha(x)=(x-\alpha)/(1-\alpha)$ if $x\in [\alpha,1)$. These are ergodic and have distinct entropies. If your condition were to hold, there would be a set $A_\alpha$ of positive measure for each $T_\alpha$. Since each $T_\alpha$ is ergodic, the subset $A_\alpha$ would have no proper invariant subsets of positive measure. It follows that the $A_\alpha$ are disjoint, which is impossible.
If you weaken your definition of universality to saying there is a subset (with no assumptions about the measure) on which $T$ behaves like your favourite map, this is (almost certainly) true. An old paper of Weiss contains essentially this result (with a different space than $[0,1]$ and a stronger condition on $T$).
B. Weiss, Countable generators in dynamics—universal minimal models. Measure and measurable dynamics (Rochester, NY, 1987), 321–326. Contemp. Math., 94
American Mathematical Society, Providence, RI, 1989