From How to prove that a kernel is positive definite? I learned that a function $f:[0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}$ induces a positive definite kernel $K:\mathbb{R}^2\to\mathbb{R}$, $K(x,y)=f((x-y)^2)$ if $f$ is completely monotonic. I want to know whether the same holds for a kernel with domain $[0,1]^2$.
So does a function $f:[0,1]\to\mathbb{R}$ induce a positive definite kernel $K:[0,1]^2\to\mathbb{R}$, $K(x,y)=f((x-y)^2)$ if $f$ is completely monotonic?