Let $\mathcal{C}$ be an $(\infty,1)$-category (meaning quasi-category) admitting (finite) limits and $X\colon N(\Delta)^\text{op}\rightarrow\mathcal{C}$ a simplicial object of $\mathcal{C}$. For a (finite) simplicial set $K$, let $X[K]$ denote the composite functor $N(\Delta_{/K})^\text{op}\rightarrow N(\Delta)^\text{op}\rightarrow\mathcal{C}$ and $X(K)$ its limit.
The simplicial object $X$ is called a category object of $\mathcal{C}$ if the spine inclusions $\mathrm{Sp}^n\rightarrow\Delta^n$ induce equivalences $X(\Delta^n)\rightarrow X(\mathrm{Sp}^n)$ for all $n\ge2$, equivalently the inclusions $\Delta^{\{0,\dotsc,i\}}\cup\Delta^{\{i,\dotsc,n\}}\rightarrow\Delta^n$ induce equivalences $X(\Delta^n)\rightarrow X(\Delta^{\{0,\dotsc,i\}}\cup\Delta^{\{i,\dotsc,n\}})$ for all $n\ge2$ and $0\le i\le n$. If, more generally, the inclusions $\Delta^S\cup\Delta^{S^{\prime}}\rightarrow\Delta^n$ induce equivalences $X(\Delta^n)\rightarrow X(\Delta^S\cup\Delta^{S^{\prime}})$ for any $n\ge2$ and any partition $[n]=S\cup S^{\prime}$ s.t. $S\cap S^{\prime}$ consists of a single vertex, then $X$ is called a groupoid object of $\mathcal{C}$. In the proof of Proposition 1.1.8. in $(\infty,2)$-categories and the Goodwillie Calculus, Jacob Lurie seems to implicitly use the following:
(Claim): A simplicial object $X$ is a groupoid object if and only if it is a category object and the horn inclusion $\Lambda_0^2\rightarrow\Delta^2$ induces an equivalence $X(\Delta^2)\rightarrow X(\Lambda_0^2)$.
This claim has also been explicitly reproduced at the nlab or in Proposition A.5 of this paper, either referring back to the above Proposition 1.1.8., which itself however only refers to the proof of Proposition 6.1.2.6. in HTT. The relevant portion is the implication $(4') \Rightarrow (3)$ in that proof, which starts with a w.l.o.g. step, namely "Replacing $i$ by $n-i$ if necessary", so all the argument there demonstrates, unless I'm missing something crucial yet implicit, is that $X$ is a groupoid object if and only if it is a category object and both horn inclusions $\Lambda_0^2\rightarrow\Delta^2$ and $\Lambda_2^2\rightarrow\Delta^2$ induce equivalences $X(\Delta^2)\rightarrow X(\Lambda_0^2)$ resp. $X(\Delta^2)\rightarrow X(\Lambda_2^2)$. It's not clear to me, even in the simpler case where $\mathcal{C}$ is only a $1$-category, why the conditions on the two horns should be equivalent to one another.
Question: Is (Claim) true? If so, what additional insight is missing?