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I have an integral operator and I wonder how I can characterize the critical point. I'll give a simplified example so maybe people can comment on and I can maybe generalize in another question.

Disclaimer : I am not an expert in this subject and my knowledge of calculus of variation is quite elementary.

Suppose we have the following integral operator

$$ T[f](y) = \int_{\Omega} K(x,y) \frac{f^2(x)}{2} d\mu(x) $$

Where $f, f^2 \in L^2(\Omega,\mu)$, $K \in L^2(\Omega^2,\mu\times \mu)$. I was trying to characterize the critical point of this non linear operator. Therefore a calculation of the variational derivative gives me the differential $DT_f$ defined by

$$ DT_f[h](y) = \int_{\Omega}K(x,y)f(x)h(x)d\mu(x) $$

To find such critical point I need to find $f$ such that for every $y \in \Omega$ an $h \in L^2(\Omega,\mu)$ yields

$$ DT_f[h](y) = 0 \iff \int_{\Omega}K(x,y)f(x)h(x)d\mu(x) = 0 \iff \int_{\Omega} f(x) h(x) K(x,y) d\mu(x) = \int_{\Omega} f(x)h(x)w_y(x) d\mu(x) = \int_{\Omega} f(x)h(x) d\lambda_y(x) = 0 $$

where $w_y(x) = K(x,y)$ and $d \lambda_y = w_y d\mu$. The last equality of the chain above is equivalent to

$$ \left\langle f, h\right\rangle_{L^2(\Omega,\lambda_y)} = 0 \;\;\; \forall y \in \Omega, h \in L^2(\Omega,\lambda_y) $$

  1. Is my derivation correct?
  2. If not where is it wrong? Or can you reccomend further readings on this subject.
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  • $\begingroup$ I think it is correct. The last chain of equivalences is mostly tautological, though. Plus I would write "critical points" rather than "critical point", since there is no reason to believe there should be only one of them. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13 at 14:39
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for checking. I think what I've found interesting in these computations is that characterization in terms of family of measures. I wonder therefore if there's a general theory that has a bit of focus on these problems. Or if a numerical method can be derived to find $f$ given such conditions. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13 at 14:47
  • $\begingroup$ I would assume, for example, there's a generalization of the Euler-Lagrange (E-L) equations for operators rather than functionals. The E-L normally lead to a system of differential equations. In the more general case maybe they lead to a family of differential operators? but It's not obvious to me. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13 at 14:51
  • $\begingroup$ I am afraid I can't say much. Concerning the family of measures, I really don't know. These things can be very tricky, though. I noticed a recent book which MIGHT be useful to you: nicolasboumal.net/book (Also for the numerical aspects). Sorry that's all I can contribute to this. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13 at 14:54

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