(See e.g. here for background on the Eudoxus reals, which motivates this question.)
Let $\mathcal{Z}=(\mathbb{Z};+,<)$. Say that a Eudoxus function is an $f:\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}$ such that $\{\vert f(a)+f(b)-f(a+b)\vert: a,b\in\mathbb{Z}\}$ is bounded, and a canonical Eudoxus function is a Eudoxus function of the form $c_\alpha: x\mapsto \lfloor \alpha x\rfloor$ for some real $\alpha$. Two Eudoxus functions $f,g$ are equivalent iff $\{\vert f(a)-g(a)\vert: a\in\mathbb{Z}\}$ is bounded.
Both the class of Eudoxus functions and equivalence of such are definable over $\mathcal{Z}$ in the appropriate sense: there are formulas $\varphi[F],\eta[F,G]$ in the expansions of the language of $\mathcal{Z}$ by one and two new function symbols respectively such that $(\mathcal{Z},f)\models\varphi$ iff $f$ is a Eudoxus function and $(\mathcal{Z},f,g)\models\eta$ iff $f$ and $g$ are equivalent Eudoxus functions. My question is whether the canonical Eudoxus functions are similarly definable:
Is there a sentence $\sigma$ in the language of $\mathcal{Z}$ expanded by a new unary function symbol $H$ such that $(\mathcal{Z},h)\models\sigma$ iff $h$ is a canonical Eudoxus function?
If we include multiplication in our language we get a positive answer (via coding of finite sequences), but the resulting definition isn't very natural. Essentially, I'm asking whether there is a "nice" definition of canonicity. I would be happy to replace $\mathcal{Z}$ with any similarly-"tame" expansion if that would help.