Welcome to my first MathOverflow posting!
This is a question about rings, all of them assumed to be both unital and associative. Let $f\colon R\to S$ be a map between rings such that $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$ and $f(1+x)=1+f(x)$ for any $x,y\in R$. (This easily implies that $f(0)=0$ and $f(1)=1$.) Is $f$ additive, that is, does $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ for all $x,y\in R$?
In my paper Is addition definable from multiplication and successor? (can also be downloaded from the HAL preprint server), I verified that the answer to that question is positive in many cases, including the following:
- $R$ is finite;
- $R$ is commutative (or even a ring of $2\times2$ matrices over a commutative ring);
- $R$ is a full matrix ring, of order $>1$, over any ring;
- $f$ is the power function $x\mapsto x^n$ over $R$;
- $f$ is the determinant function on a ring of $3\times3$ matrices over a commutative ring...
and many other cases.
The answer to the question above is positive iff ring-theoretical addition has a positive existential (resp., positive primitive) definition from multiplication and successor. I have been unable to settle this problem, in any direction. My (modest) computer attempts suggest that there should be a counterexample lurking somewhere, perhaps even in the existing ring theory literature.