A field is a ring whose nonzero elements form a commutative group under multiplication. A field is also a commutative inverse semigroup with respect to multiplication. The unique multiplicative inverse $y$ of an element $x$ (in the sense that $xyx=x$ and $yxy=y$) is $y=x^{-1}$ if $x \neq 0$ and $y=0$ if $x = 0$.
To simplify the discussion, define an inverse ring to be a ring which is an inverse semigroup with respect to multiplication. Denote the multiplicative inverse operation by $()^{-1}$. (Warning: The notion of an inverse ring doesn't exist outside of this question.) Both rings and inverse rings form a variety of algebras, i.e. they can be defined by a set of operations ($+$, $*$, $-()$, $()^{-1}$, $0$, $1$ in this case) together with set of identities satisfied by these operations. I think that the commutative inverse rings are the smallest variety of algebras containing all fields.
Question
A direct product of a family of fields is no longer a field. However, it is still a commutative inverse ring. My question is whether every commutative inverse ring is a subdirect product of a family of fields.
(Note that subdirect product here must refer to either rings or inverse rings, because the notion of subalgebra isn't defined otherwise. The answer to my question should be independent of which one we choose, but referring to inverse rings would make more sense to me.)
Note This question is identical to this question at math.stackexchange.com.