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This is motivationally related to an earlier question of mine.


Given a first-order theory $T$, let $\widehat{D}(T)$ be the semiring defined as follows:

  • Elements of $\widehat{D}(T)$ are equivalence classes of formal $\mathbb{N}$-linear combinations of first-order formulas in the language of $T$.

  • The equivalence relation is the finest one satisfying the following properties (writing "$[\varphi]$" for the class of $\varphi$):

    • $[\varphi\vee\psi]+[\varphi\wedge\psi]=[\varphi]+[\psi]$. (The slightly odd phrasing is needed since we don't have $-1$ as a scalar.)

    • If $\varphi,\psi$ share no variables in common then $[\varphi]\cdot [\psi]=[\varphi\wedge\psi]$.

    • $[\varphi]=n[\psi]$ whenever there is a formula $\theta$ which $T$ proves defines a $n$-to-one surjection from the set of tuples satisfying $\varphi$ to the set of tuples satisfying $\psi$.

Note that for sentences, "$T$-provable" and "$T$-disprovable" imply "$=1_{\widehat{D}(T)}$" and $=0_{\widehat{D}(T)}$" respectively. More interestingly, taking $n=1$ in the third bulletpoint we get that if $\varphi$ and $\psi$ are sentences (so the corresponding sets of tuples are either $\emptyset$ or $\{\emptyset\}$) then $[\varphi]=[\psi]$ whenever $T\vdash\varphi\leftrightarrow\psi$ (via $\theta\equiv\top$). However, the converse isn't clear to me.

Suppose $\varphi,\psi$ are sentences in the language of $T$. If $[\varphi]=[\psi]$, must we have $T\vdash\varphi\leftrightarrow\psi$?

I generally want to understand how $\widehat{D}(T)$ can (if at all!) disagree with the Lindenbaum algebra of $T$. For example, let $\varphi\triangleleft\psi$ iff there are formulas $\chi_1,...,\chi_n$ such that $[\varphi]+[\chi_1]+...+[\chi_n]=[\psi]$. Then do we have $T\vdash\varphi\rightarrow\psi$ iff $[\varphi]\triangleleft[\psi]$? For now, however, I think the question above is the right thing to focus on.

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  • $\begingroup$ If I correctly understand the third bullet point, with $n=1$, it implies that $[\varphi]$ is unaffected by renaming (bijectively) the variables in $\varphi$. (And you want that in order to apply the second bullet point to arbitrary formulas.) But then in the paragraph after the main question, the conclusion $T\vdash\varphi\to\psi$ should be modified to allow for renaming variables. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 20 at 0:28
  • $\begingroup$ @AndreasBlass I don't think that's right - in the paragraph after the main question, $\varphi$ and $\psi$ are sentences so there should be no renaming of variables necessary (that said it might be more natural to require that $\chi_i$ be sentences as well rather than formulas ...). $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 20 at 0:58
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, I didn't notice that only the $\chi$'s were allowed to have free variables. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 20 at 1:02
  • $\begingroup$ @AndreasBlass To be fair, there are a few variations of that question, and I'm not at all sure I picked the "right" one. (Which is why that's just a postscript.) $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 20 at 1:06
  • $\begingroup$ It is slightly odd to me that you focus on this this particular definition with the clause about $n$-to-$1$ surjections. The category of $T$-definable sets and $T$-definable functions is very fundamental and the semiring of objects of this category with sums and products corresponds to restriction of this clause to bijections. Also, if my impression from very limited familiarity with categorical logic is correct, then essentially there this category is identified with the theory $T$ and for example models of $T$ will be functors preserving enough structure from this category to $\mathsf{Set}$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 24 at 14:30

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Yes, if $[\varphi]=[\psi]$ for sentences $\varphi$ and $\psi$, then $T\vdash\varphi\mathrel{\leftrightarrow}\psi$.

Indeed, for this we assume that $[\varphi]=[\psi]$ and fix a model $\mathfrak{M}\models T$ to show that $\mathfrak{M}\models \varphi\iff\mathfrak{M}\models \psi$.

Notice that the latter is equivalent to the assertion about the equality of the cardinalities of the sets of tuples satisfying $\varphi$ and $\psi$ in $\mathfrak{M}$. In order to prove that it is sufficient to observe that the equivalence relation on $T$-formulas $$\theta \sim_{\mathfrak{M},\text{crd}} \eta\iff |\{\vec{x}\mid \mathfrak{M}\models \theta(\vec{x})\}|=|\{\vec{y}\mid \mathfrak{M}\models \eta(\vec{y})\}|$$ satisfies the three bullet points from your question (and hence showing that $[\theta]=[\eta]$ implies $[\theta]_{\mathfrak{M},\text{crd}}=[\eta]_{\mathfrak{M},\text{crd}}$).

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