For each $k\ge 1$, let $f_k:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R_+$ be $1-$Lipschitz, increasing such that $f_k(x)\ge x^+$ for $x\in\mathbb R$, $f_k(-\infty)=0$ and $$\lim_{x\to+\infty} \big(f_k(x)-x\big)=0.$$ Assume that $f_k$ converges uniformly to $f:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R_+$. Does it hold $$\lim_{k\to\infty} co(f_k)(x)=co(f)(x),\quad \forall x\in\mathbb R?$$ Here $co(f_k)$, $co(f)$ denote the so-called convex envelopes of $f_k$ and $f$, see e.g. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lower_convex_envelope
PS : Set $g_k:=co(f_k)$ and $g:=co(f)(x)$ (of coures there existence can be verified easily). Then one has $x^+\le g_k(x)\le f_k(x)$ and $x^+\le g(x)\le f(x)$.