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(Cross posted from Math StackExchange: Does weak $L^2$ approximation implies $L^2$ approximation under a condition similar to convexity?)

Assume $(\Omega, \mu)$ is a probability space. Consider a class of functions $S$ all contained in the unit ball of $L^\infty(\Omega, \mu)$. Let $f \in L^\infty(\Omega, \mu)$ be contained in the weak $L^2$ closure of $S$. Now, if $S$ is convex, Hahn-Banach implies $f$ is also contained in the $L^2$ norm closure of $S$. I’m wondering if the following condition on $S$, which seems similar in spirit to convexity, is also sufficient to imply $f$’s containment in the $L^2$ norm closure of $S$:

For any countable measurable partition $(A_i)$ of $\Omega$ and corresponding collection $(s_i)$ of elements of $S$, the function $\sum_{i \in I} s_i|_{A_i}$ is in $S$. (The sum here is simply a shorthand meaning joining together these functions defined on pairwise disjoint domains.)

Any help or reference is appreciated.


Edit: As pointed out by @NarutakaOZAWA’s comment, this is not true in general. However, I’m mostly interested in the case where $S$ consists of real-valued functions. Does a counterexample also exist in that case?

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  • $\begingroup$ The set $S$ of unitary functions contains zero in the weak $L^2$ closure. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 22, 2023 at 8:32
  • $\begingroup$ @NarutakaOZAWA You’re right. Guess this isn’t true in general. Do you think a similar counterexample could exist if we also assume all functions in $S$ are real-valued? The unitary example doesn’t seem easily adaptable to that. $\endgroup$
    – David Gao
    Commented Dec 22, 2023 at 8:44
  • $\begingroup$ The same holds for the real case. For example, iid Rademacher variables are orthonormal and hence contain zero in the weak $L^2$ closure. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 2:28
  • $\begingroup$ @NarutakaOZAWA Ah, so the set of all self-adjoint unitaries would be a counterexample. Thank you so much! $\endgroup$
    – David Gao
    Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 3:47

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