$\DeclareMathOperator\GU{GU}$$\DeclareMathOperator\GL{GL}$I'm a bit confused by the following situation: suppose we have an Hermitian vector space $V=K^3$ of matrix $$ J=\begin{pmatrix}& & \delta^{-1}\\ & 1 & \\ -\delta^{-1} & &\end{pmatrix}, $$ with $K=\mathbb{Q}(\delta)$ imaginary quadratic, $\delta=\sqrt{-D}$. Define $G=\GU(2,1)$ as the reductive group over $\mathbb{Q}$ of matrices in $\text{Res}_{K/\mathbb{Q}}\GL_3$ which preserve the above hermitian form, up to a similitude factor. That is, $g\in G$ by definition means $${^t}\overline{g}Jg=\mu(g)\cdot J$$ for some $\mu(g)\in \mathbb{G}_m$.
Now take $X\in V$ positive, and suppose that the orthogonal of $X$ in $V$ is anisotropic i.e., there is no vector $Y\in X^\perp\subset V$ s.t. $(Y,Y)=0$. By this assumption we know that $\GU(J\mid_{X^\perp})$ is not quasi-split over $\mathbb{Q}$. My question is: in this situation, can we still say that we have an embedding $$\GU(J\mid_{X^\perp})\hookrightarrow \GU(2,1)$$ of group schemes over $\mathbb{Q}$?
Thank you for your help.