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I was thinking of the following problem. Let $f$ be a Taylor expansion and $a_k$ the associated coefficients,

$$\forall x\in\mathbb{R},~f(x)\triangleq\sum_{k=0}^\infty a_kx^k.$$

Let suppose that we have:

$$\forall x\in\mathbb{R},~f(x)>0.$$

Is it possible to find another expansion such that:

$$\forall x\in\mathbb{R},~f(x) = \sum_{k=0}^\infty b_k\beta_k(x)$$

with $b_k$ positive real numbers and $\beta_k$ (exponential?) positive functions ?

Thank you very much!

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  • $\begingroup$ If it's enough for this to work for $x>0$, and you change the sum for an integral, then this becomes Laplace transform $f(x)=\int_0^\infty dk b(k) \exp(-kx)$. For positive $b(k)$, $f(x)$ is of course positive, but I don't know if converse is true. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 10:14
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer ! My problem is that the $a_k$ are not necessary positive but $f$ is positive. I want to have another expression with only positive terms. Do you think that Laplace transform will work ? $\endgroup$
    – NancyBoy
    Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 10:17
  • $\begingroup$ Ah, sadly it won't. Inverse Laplace transform does not preserve positivity mathoverflow.net/questions/383996/… $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 10:21
  • $\begingroup$ Arh, thank you for these information ! $\endgroup$
    – NancyBoy
    Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 10:23
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    $\begingroup$ The answer is trivial: take $b_0=1, b_k=0$ for $k\geq 2$ and $\beta_0=f$. You have to specify what functions $\beta_k$ are allowed. With exponential functions this is in general not possible, since in this case we will have $f^{(n)}>0$ for all $n$, so not all positive functions can be expanded into a series of positive exponentials. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 11:53

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I believe it is not possible. Here is an argument for this:

Disclaimer: All inequalities hereafter are meant elementwise

Let's consider a discrete version of this problem $x\in\{0,1,\dots,N-1\}$. Then we want to find an invertible $N\times N$ matrix $\beta$ (different from identity), such that for every elementwise non-negative vector $\boldsymbol{f} = (f(0), f(1), \dots f(N-1))^T \geq 0$ we have $$ \boldsymbol{b} = \beta^{-1} \boldsymbol{f} \geq 0\,. $$ The necessary and sufficient condition for this is that $\beta^{-1}\geq 0$. Moreover, you require that $\beta_k(x)\geq 0$, which in discrete case translates to $\beta\geq 0$.

However, citing Nonnegative matrix - Wikipedia:

The inverse of a non-negative matrix is usually not non-negative. The exception is the non-negative monomial matrices: a non-negative matrix has non-negative inverse if and only if it is a (non-negative) monomial matrix.

Where the monomial matrix is defined as:

In mathematics, a generalized permutation matrix (or monomial matrix) is a matrix with the same nonzero pattern as a permutation matrix, i.e. there is exactly one nonzero entry in each row and each column.

Thus the only allowed transformation $\beta$ is reshuffling (and possibly rescaling) the elements of $\boldsymbol{f}$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thabk you very much Michal Jan ! $\endgroup$
    – NancyBoy
    Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 12:00
  • $\begingroup$ But here you adress only linear combination of $f$. What about other transformations ? $\endgroup$
    – NancyBoy
    Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 13:03
  • $\begingroup$ If you want to allow for $\beta_k$ to depend on $f$, which is what I assume you mean, then I think @AlexandreEremenko's comment sums it up. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 15:14
  • $\begingroup$ But in Alexander spoke only about exponential. My question was about the existence of a such positive family function. Do you know for this more general case ? $\endgroup$
    – NancyBoy
    Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 21:11
  • $\begingroup$ Except for $\beta_0=f$ and an infinite family of akin trivial examples, I do not. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 21:18

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