Let $k$ be a local field and $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
Question: I would like to know precisely, which irreducible (admissible) representations of $G := \textrm{GL}_n(k)$ are generic, i.e. which admit Whittaker-models.
Preliminaries: Recall that if $\psi \colon k \to \mathbb{C}^{\times}$ is a (unitary?) additive character, $\psi$ lifts to a character of the (standard) maximal unipotent subgroup $U:=U_n(k) \subset G$ of the standard Borel $B := B_n(k) \subset G$ (upper-triangular matrices), and the space of Whittaker functions is the smooth induction $$ \mathfrak{W}(\psi) := \textrm{Ind}^{G}_{U}(\psi). $$ An irreducible admissible representation $(\pi,V)$ of $G$ is called generic, iff there exists an embedding $$ \mathfrak{W} \colon (\pi,V) \hookrightarrow \mathfrak{W}(\psi). $$ By Gelfand-Kajdan's Multiplicity One-Theorem, the multiplicity of $(\pi,V)$ inside $\mathfrak{W}(\psi)$ is $\leq 1$, so if $(\pi,V)$ exists, we call its (unique) image $\mathfrak{W}(\pi, \psi)$ to be the Whittaker-model of $(\pi,V)$.
Reference: My result resumee is Prasad-Raghuram's notes on "Representation Theory of $GL(n)$ over Non-Arch.fields" (http://www.math.tifr.res.in/~dprasad/ictp2.pdf). In Thm.9.3 (reference is Theorem 9.7. in Zelevinsky's 'Induced Representations of reductive $\mathfrak{p}$-adic groups II'), the authors state that
An irreducible admissible representation $\pi$ (realized as the unique irreducible quotient of some parabolically induced representation) is generic, if and only if $\pi$ itself is parabolically induced (from essentially square-integrable) and (thus, the parabolic induction itself is irreducible).
"Thus, in particular, discrete series representations are generic". I don't get this, as Steinberg representation is a discrete series, so it should be generic, but on the other hand, it is not of the form $\textrm{Ind}^{G}_{B}(\chi_1,\ldots,\chi_n)$, but the unique irreducible quotient of the reducible $$ \textrm{Ind}^{G}_{B}(| \cdot |^{-\frac{n-1}{2}}, | \cdot |^{-\frac{n-3}{2}}, \ldots, | \cdot |^{\frac{n-1}{2}}), $$ so it directly contradicts Theorem 9.3 of Prasad-Raghuram. What did I misunderstand?