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Let us take the Hilbert space $l_2$ with an equivalent norm

$\Vert x \Vert = \max \{2 \Vert x \Vert_1, \Vert x \Vert_2 \}$, where $\Vert x \Vert_1 =( \sum_{n=2}^\infty x_n^2 )^{\frac{1}{2}}$ and $\Vert x \Vert_2 = ( \sum_{n=1}^\infty x_n^2 )^{\frac{1}{2}}$, for $(x_n)_{n \geq 1} \in l_2$.

The unit ball with respect to norm $\Vert \cdot \Vert$ is $B_{\Vert \cdot \Vert}= Y \cap B_{(l_2, \Vert \cdot \Vert_2)}$, where $Y=\{x \in l_2 : \sum_{n=2}^\infty x_n^2 \leq \frac{1}{4} \}$. Then $(l_2, \Vert \cdot \Vert)$ is not strictly convex. By reflexivity, the dual norm is not smooth. I am trying to find whether $X=(l_2, \Vert \cdot \Vert)$ is smooth Banach space.

My attempt: I assume the space is not smooth. For this, if we take $e_1=(1, 0, 0,...) \in S_{(l_2, \Vert \cdot \Vert)}$, then for $f=(1, 1/4,0,0,...)$ and $g=(1,1/2,0,0,...) \in X^*$, then $f(x)=1=g(x)$. However, I need help to conclude whether $f$ and $g$ belong to the unit sphere of $S_{X^*}$. $\vert f(x) \vert \leq \Vert f \Vert \Vert x \Vert \leq \Vert f \Vert$ and similarly $\vert g(x) \vert \leq \Vert g \Vert$. Then $\Vert f \Vert \geq 1$ and $\Vert g \Vert \geq 1$.

Another way to find the smoothness is to check whether the dual norm is strictly convex. Thank you in advance.

Note: A Banach space is smooth if $J(x)$ is singleton, $J(x)=\{f \in S_{X^*} : f(x)=1\}, x \in S_X$.

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1 Answer 1

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Let $z:=\frac12\,(\sqrt3,1,0,0,\dots)$. For $x=(x_1,x_2,\dots)$, let $$f(x):=2x_2,\quad g(x):=\tfrac12\,(\sqrt3\,x_1+x_2).$$ Then $f\ne g$, $\|z\|=1$, $f(z)=1=g(z)$, and $\|f\|=1=\|g\|$.

So, your space is not smooth.


Details: For all $x=(x_1,x_2,\dots)\in B_{\|\cdot\|}$ we have $$f(x)=2x_2\le1,\quad g(x)=\tfrac{\sqrt3}2\,x_1+\tfrac12\,x_2\le \sqrt{x^2+x_2^2}\le1,$$ so that $\|f\|\le1$ and $\|g\|\le1$. Since $\|z\|=1$ and $f(z)=1=g(z)$, we get $\|f\|=1=\|g\|$.

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  • $\begingroup$ In the same question, if we take $\Vert x_n + x \Vert \to 2$, for $x, x_n \in S_X$, it will imply that $\exists f \in J(x)$ such that $f(x_n) \to 1$. But does the above property is true for each $f \in J(x)$? $\endgroup$
    – PPB
    Commented Apr 26, 2023 at 7:50
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    $\begingroup$ @PriyankaPriyadarshiniBehera : Any additional questions should be asked elsewhere. As an exception, I will answer here the question in you latter comment, though. The answer is no. Indeed, let $x:=z$, where $z$ is as in the above answer. Let $x_n:=(1,1/2,0,0,\dots)$ for all $n$, so that $\|x_n+x\|=2$ and $\|x_n\|=\|x\|=1$. However, for $f$ and $g$ as in the above answer we have $f\in J(x)$, $g\in J(x)$, $f(x_n)=1$, and $g(x_n)=1/4\not\to1$. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 26, 2023 at 12:24

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