I have a function $f(z) \in [0,\infty]$ that satisfies $-1 < f(z) < 0$.
I would like to find the minimal $\gamma$ that satisfies:
$$ \int_0^{\gamma} f(z)dz = \log(1+f(0)).$$
Clearly, I cannot bound such $\gamma$ since $f$ can go to 0 so I can further relax the requirement:
find minimal $\gamma$ such that there exist some $\xi$ and:
$$ \int_{\xi}^{\gamma} f(z)dz = \log(1+f(\xi)).$$
That is, if $f$ increases, I can update the goal.
So the worst function $f$ that maximizes $\gamma$ should satisfy:
$$ \int_{\xi}^{\gamma} f(z)dz = \log(1+f(\xi))$$
for all $\xi \in [0,\gamma]$.
Using $\int_{\xi}^{\gamma} = \int_{0}^{\gamma}-\int_0^{\xi}$ and $\int_{0}^{\gamma} = \log(1+f(0))$, I need to find $f$ such that:
$$ \int_0^{\xi} f(z)dz = \log(1+f(0))-\log(1+f(\xi)).$$
So if I would find such $f$ where $f(0)$ is the boundary condition, it would be the worst function and the $\gamma$ for that function is the greatest such $\gamma$ for all function.
So, finally, the question is: how can I solve this integral equation? or, is it possible to bound the function in some sense?
Clearly, the bound on $\gamma$ should depend on $f(0)$.