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Let $k$ be a field and $R$ be the ring $k[x,xy,xy^2,xy^3]$. Let $X$ be $\operatorname{Spec}(R)$ and $\tilde{X}$ be the blow-up of $X$ along the maximal ideal $I$ of $R$ generated by $x,xy,xy^2,xy^3$.I have proved that $\tilde{X}$ is line bundle over $\mathbb{P}^1_k$, so that the $G$-theory groups of $\tilde{X}$ agree with the $G$-theory groups of $\mathbb{P}^1_k$. I am trying to compute the $G$-theory groups of $X$ by using the long exact sequence induced by the blow-up square associated to $X$ and $I$, which is $\cdots\rightarrow G_n(\mathbb{P}^1)\rightarrow G_n(k)\oplus G_n(\tilde{X})\rightarrow G_n(X)\rightarrow G_{n-1}(\mathbb{P}^1)\rightarrow\cdots$. So far, I only managed to show that the map $G_0(\mathbb{P}^1)\rightarrow G_0(k)$ sends the class of the structure sheaf of $\mathbb{P}^1$ to the class of $k$ and sends the class of the twisted sheaf $O(-1)$ to 0.Note that $G_0(\mathbb{P}^1)$ is the free abelian group based on the classes of $O$ and $O(-1)$.So I know the map $G_0(\mathbb{P}^1)\rightarrow G_0(k)$. But I don’t know how to compute the maps $G_n(\mathbb{P}^1)\rightarrow G_n(k)$ for all $n\geq 1$ and the maps $G_n(\mathbb{P}^1)\rightarrow G_n(\tilde{X})$ for all $n\geq 0$. Could someone help me with this problem? Thank you very much in advance.

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    $\begingroup$ I guess the maps $G_n(\mathbb{P}^1) \to G_n(\tilde{X})$ are all isomorphisms, hence $G_n(X) = G_n(k)$. $\endgroup$
    – Sasha
    Commented Nov 22, 2022 at 4:43
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    $\begingroup$ Since $G_*(\mathbb{P}^1)$ is freely generated by $O$ and $O(-1)$ as a graded $G_*(k)$-module, we know the map $G_n(\mathbb{P}^1)\to G_n(k)$ for all $n$ as well. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 22, 2022 at 8:58
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    $\begingroup$ Thank you very much for your kind help. Could I ask why the maps $G_n(\mathbb{P}^1)\rightarrow G_n(\tilde{X})$ are all isomorphisms? $\endgroup$
    – Boris
    Commented Nov 22, 2022 at 14:16
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    $\begingroup$ Because, as you said, G-theory of $\tilde{X}$ agrees with the G-theory of $\mathbb{P}^1$. $\endgroup$
    – Sasha
    Commented Nov 22, 2022 at 16:02
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    $\begingroup$ I would like to clarify the claim that the $G$-theory of $\tilde{X}$ agrees with the $G$-theory of $\mathbb{P}^1$. This comes from the homotopy invariance of $G$-theory for Noetherian schemes, which says that if $p:E\rightarrow X$ is a geometric vector bundle over a Noetherian scheme X, then the base change $p^*:G(X)\rightarrow G(E)$ induces isomorphisms on the $G$-theory groups. But the problem now is the map I am trying to compute is the $G$-theory transfer map, which is covariant with respect to the underlying morphism of schemes. Could you help me with this issue? Thank you very much. $\endgroup$
    – Boris
    Commented Nov 22, 2022 at 18:22

1 Answer 1

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If $\tilde{X}$ is the total space of a line bundle $L$ and $i \colon \mathbb{P}^1 \to \tilde{X}$ is the embedding of the zero section there is an exact sequence $$ 0 \to p^* L^\vee \to \mathcal{O}_{\tilde{X}} \to i_* \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^1} \to 0.\tag{*} $$ If you tensor it with $p^*F$ and observe that $$ p^*F \otimes i_* \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^1} \cong i_*i^*p^*F \cong i_*F $$ (by projection formula) you get an exact sequence $$ 0 \to p^*(F \otimes L^\vee) \to p^* F \to i_* F \to 0. $$ This gives you an expression for the map $i_*$ in terms of the map $p^*$.

EDIT. Let me explain the sequence $(*)$. The variety $\tilde{X}$ is smooth and $Z = i(\mathbb{P}^1) \subset \tilde{X}$ is a Cartier divisor. Therefore, the ideal $I_Z$ is a line bundle.

On the other hand, every line bundle on $\tilde{X}$ is the pullback of a line bundle via $p$. So, to identify $I_Z$ it is enough to understand its restriction to $Z$. We have $$ I_Z\vert_Z = \mathcal{O}_{\tilde{X}}(-Z)\vert_Z = \mathcal{O}_Z(-Z) = \mathcal{O}_Z(3), $$ because the normal bundle of $Z$ is $\mathcal{O}(-3)$. Thus $$ I_Z \cong p^*\mathcal{O}(3), $$ and the sequence $(*)$ is just the Koszul resolution of $\mathcal{O}_Z$.

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    $\begingroup$ Thank you so much for your kind help and explanations. Could you explain why the inclusion of the exceptional divisor to the blow-up $\tilde{X}$ is the embedding of the zero section of the line bundle over $\mathbb{P}^1$? Thank you very much for your kind and patient help. $\endgroup$
    – Boris
    Commented Nov 22, 2022 at 19:47
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    $\begingroup$ Also, could you explain how you derived the first exact sequence?I understand that it implies the third exact sequence by applying the projection formula. But I don’t know how to derive the first exact sequence. Thank you very much. $\endgroup$
    – Boris
    Commented Nov 22, 2022 at 22:40
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    $\begingroup$ @Boris: See an explanation about the exact sequence in the edit. $\endgroup$
    – Sasha
    Commented Nov 23, 2022 at 8:04
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you so much for your kind explanations. I will try my best to understand them. $\endgroup$
    – Boris
    Commented Nov 23, 2022 at 14:34
  • $\begingroup$ Could you please help me with the following:why is every line bundle on $\tilde{X}$ the pullback of a line bundle by p?And why is the normal bundle of $Z$ $O(-3)$? Thank you very much for your kind and patient help. $\endgroup$
    – Boris
    Commented Nov 23, 2022 at 20:08

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