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Let $C,D$ be two non-compact complex algebraic smooth curves. Suppose that two unramified regular finite maps $p_1, p_2: C \rightarrow D$ are given and have the same degree. Is there always an automorphism $\varphi:C \rightarrow C$ such that $p_1=p_2\circ \varphi$?

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  • $\begingroup$ What do you mean by "affine Riemann surface"? $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Nov 14, 2022 at 10:56
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    $\begingroup$ Sorry, I mean non-compact complex algebraic smooth curves $\endgroup$
    – user494203
    Commented Nov 14, 2022 at 11:00
  • $\begingroup$ OK; so, the covering is given by a regular map? or just holomorphic? (Please edit to clarify the question.) $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Nov 14, 2022 at 11:22
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, the covering is given by a regular map. Thank you very much, I correct it right now! $\endgroup$
    – user494203
    Commented Nov 14, 2022 at 11:29
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    $\begingroup$ You should at least require that the degree of the two maps is the same... $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 14, 2022 at 11:43

1 Answer 1

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I suppose that "non-compact complex algebraic curve" means complex affine curve.

The following counterexample was proposed by my friend Fedor Pakovich.

Let $D=\mathbf{C}\backslash\{-1,1\}$. Consider the $4$-th Chebyshev polynomial $$p_1(z)=2(2z^2-1)^2-1=8z^4-8z^2+1.$$ It has critical points at $0,\pm1/\sqrt{2}$, with critical values $\pm1$, therefore it defines an unramified covering $$p_1:C\to D,\quad\mbox{where}\quad C=\mathbf{C}\backslash p_1^{-1}(\{\pm1\}).$$ Now $p_2(z)=-p_1(z)$ is another unramified covering $C\to D$ of the same degree, but evidently $p_1\neq p_2\circ\phi.$ (The only non-trivial automorphism of $C$ is $\phi(z)=-z$).

Remarks. 1. This example can be much generalized, of course; one can take any $D$ possessing a non-trivial automorphism $\psi$, then in most cases $p_1$ (mapping whatever Riemann surfce to $D$) and $p_2=\psi\circ p_1$ will not be related as stated in the problem.

  1. The problem will become harder if under the same assumptions we relax the conclusion to $p_2=\psi\circ p_2\circ\phi.$ Fedor and I believe that counterexamples may still exist, but they will be rare.
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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much for the exhaustive answer! $\endgroup$
    – user494203
    Commented Dec 10, 2022 at 23:08

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