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In introductions to abstract Wiener spaces, the sample paths usually form a Banach space; so, in particular, the sum of two sample paths is a valid sample path and also an element of the Banach space. Then the Gaussian measure is constructed as a measure on this Banach space, the Cameron–Martin space is a subspace thereof, etc.

However, when the stochastic process is pinned to some non-zero value, then the addition of two sample paths no longer yields a valid sample path, hence the sample paths do not form a Banach space and the whole construction breaks down—so how are abstract Wiener spaces constructed for such pinned processes?

A simple example of this is a Brownian bridge, which is typically constructed to be pinned to zero at both time 0 and some time $T > 0$, but what if it is pinned to some value $b \neq 0$ at time $T$? Is the only way out to take the zero-pinned Wiener space and add $b\tau/T$ to every sample path? So then in a sense there is no true Wiener space for non-zero-pinned processes (since this additional term takes it out of the Banach space)? Also, how do I know that a linear drift is correct instead of some other drift function?


Note: I substantially modified this question after realizing that I had originally kind of missed the point.

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  • $\begingroup$ I'm not sure I understand what you are trying to achieve, but the Cameron-Martin space is the space of all functions f such that f+B is absolutely continuous with respect to B, and thus it consists of functions pinned at 0 (and indeed it will be the same for all values of $b$). $\endgroup$
    – Kostya_I
    Commented Oct 29, 2022 at 10:04
  • $\begingroup$ In any case, your process for any $b$ is just the original bridge with $b=0$ plus a deterministic linear function $h(\tau)$... $\endgroup$
    – Kostya_I
    Commented Oct 29, 2022 at 10:07
  • $\begingroup$ Given my later additional realization, maybe I should rephrase the whole question, but: I want to know how processes whose final (or initial, similarly) value is pinned to a non-zero value are treated. If the pinned value is not zero, then the sample paths no longer form a vector space, so it must differ from the procedure for, say, the Wiener process. If I'm understanding you correctly, then the answer is that one says that there is some Banach space E and the sample paths are given by E + (b-a)τ/T? Is this the general construction? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 31, 2022 at 14:54

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A Gaussian process can be thought of as a "standard Gaussian" on its Cameron-Martin space $\mathcal{M}$. That is, given an orthonormal basis $\psi_1,\psi_2, \dots$ of the Cameron-Martin space, the process is given by the sum $f=\sum_i \xi_i \psi_i$, where $\xi_i$ are i.i.d. standard Gaussians. Depending on the point of view, we may now think of it either as a collection of random variables $\langle f,\psi\rangle$ indexed by $\mathcal{M}$, or say that it converges almost surely in a suitable Banach space $\mathcal{B}$. In either case, the distribution is independent of the choice of the basis.

On the Cameron-Martin space of the Browninan motion (say, on $[0,T]$), the evaluation $f\mapsto f(t),$ $t\in (0,T)$, is a bounded linear functional, thus $f(t)=\langle f,\psi^{(t)}\rangle$ for some function $\psi^{(t)}$. It is not hard to see that in fact, $\psi^{(t)}(x)=\min(x,t)$. We can then take $\psi_1=\frac{1}{\sqrt{t}}\psi^{(t)}$ and complete the basis. What this gives us is a disintegration of our Gaussian measure with respect to the value of $f(t)$: namely, conditionally on $f(t)$, the distribution of $f$ is given by $f(t)\psi^{(t)}/t$ plus an independent Gaussian on the orthogonal complement or $\{\psi^{(t)}\}$. This orthogonal complement is exactly the space of all functions in $\mathcal{M}$ vanishing at $t$. You can define the corresponding Banach space $\mathcal{B}_0\subset \mathcal{B}$, and the "pinned" (i.e., conditioned) process will live in the closed affine subspace $f(t)\psi^{(t)}/t+\mathcal{B}_0$ of $\mathcal{B}$.

This construction works for any Gaussian process and any bounded linear functional, or even, more generally, any decomposition $\mathcal{M}=\mathcal{M_1}\oplus\mathcal{M_2}$. Of course, the fact that $\psi^{(t)}$ happens to be a linear function on $(0,t)$ is special to the Brownian motion.

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  • $\begingroup$ Great, thanks—so, in particular: 1. The CM space is the same for any conditioned or unconditioned process of the same "type". 2. Conditioned processes in general no longer live in a Banach space, but in an affine subspace of a Banach space. 3. $\mathcal{B}_0$ is independent of the pinned value and depends only on the "time" of the "pinning". 4. In constructing the affine subspace, the particular sample path $f$ is irrelevant, only its value at the "pinning time" matters, since it is "replaced" with the scaled Riesz representative of the evaluation functional. Is all of that correct? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 2, 2022 at 16:44
  • $\begingroup$ And finally: I assume the general (non-Brownian) prescription for the affine subspace is $f(t)\psi^{(t)}/ \psi^{(t)}(t) + \mathcal{B}_0$? And might you have some reference for this construction? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 2, 2022 at 16:47

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