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Rewrote question to more directly address the core issue
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Brownian bridge: Reproducing kernel when Abstract Wiener spaces for pinned to non-zero final valueprocesses (e.g., Brownian Bridge)

It is well known that anIn introductions to abstract Wiener space can be constructed forspaces, the Brownian bridge pinned to 0 at both $t = 0$ and $t = T$: The sample space is the loop space of all continuous paths which start and end at 0usually form a Banach space; so, $C_{0,0}[0,T]$in particular, and the Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ is its subsetsum of absolutely continuoustwo sample paths with square-integrable first derivatives under the inner product $$\left(f, g\right)_\mathcal{H} = \int_0^T \left(\dot{f} + \frac{f}{T-\tau}\right) \left(\dot{g} + \frac{g}{T-\tau}\right) \mathrm{d}\tau.$$ The covariance function is $$\mathrm{Cov}(B_s, B_t) =: a(s,t) = \min(s, t) - \frac{st}{T},$$ which is easily seen to bea valid sample path and also an element of $\mathcal{H}$ andthe Banach space. Then the Gaussian measure is thusconstructed as a valid reproducing kernelmeasure on this Banach space, as required. Note that $a(s, T) = 0$ (as required by the pinning). So farCameron–Martin space is a subspace thereof, so goodetc.


 

However, once we pinwhen the bridgestochastic process is pinned to asome non-zero final value $b = B_T$, something apparently has to change. The covariance must, of course, bethen the same regardlessaddition of the pinned value, but thetwo sample space and Cameron–Martin Hilbert space are not, since they must now be pinned to $b \neq 0$. Hence the covariance function ispaths no longer yields a valid reproducing kernel because it still ends at $a(s, T) = 0$, regardless of $b$sample path, and is thereforehence the sample paths do not an element of $\mathcal{H}$ any more!

Edit: I now noticed that, of course, if the final value is pinned to $b \neq 0$, then the functions no longer form a vector space, so the question is actually much more fundamental: Is it even possible to define an abstract Wiener space in this case? If so, how?

Hence my question is: What do I need to modify to properly accommodate a non-zero pinned final value?form a Banach space and the whole construction breaks down—so how are abstract Wiener spaces constructed for such pinned processes?

Since the covariance is a fundamental propertyA simple example of the underlying stochastic process, it seems I can't actually change anything about that, but this then implies that it will never beis a reproducing kernel for the Cameron–Martin spaceBrownian bridge, which seemsis typically constructed to be a contradiction.

In fact, more generallypinned to zero at both time 0 and some time $T > 0$, this must be a problem for any process thatbut what if it is pinned to a non-zero finalsome value.


I thought I might be able to fudge my way out of this by applying the Cameron–Martin theorem with a simple linear drift $h(\tau) = k\tau$ with$b \neq 0$ at time $k = b/T$$T$? Is the only way out to turntake the 0-pinned case into a $b$zero-pinned one, but thisWiener space and add $h(\tau)$ turns out$b\tau/T$ to have infinite norm $(h, h)_\mathcal{H}$every sample path? So then in a sense there is no true Wiener space for $b \neq 0$non-zero-pinned processes (which isn't surprising considering thatsince this additional term takes it is not an elementout of the original Cameron–MartinBanach space!)? Also, how do I know that a linear drift is correct instead of some other drift function?


Note: I substantially modified this question after realizing that I had originally kind of missed the point.

Brownian bridge: Reproducing kernel when pinned to non-zero final value

It is well known that an abstract Wiener space can be constructed for the Brownian bridge pinned to 0 at both $t = 0$ and $t = T$: The sample space is the loop space of all continuous paths which start and end at 0, $C_{0,0}[0,T]$, and the Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ is its subset of absolutely continuous paths with square-integrable first derivatives under the inner product $$\left(f, g\right)_\mathcal{H} = \int_0^T \left(\dot{f} + \frac{f}{T-\tau}\right) \left(\dot{g} + \frac{g}{T-\tau}\right) \mathrm{d}\tau.$$ The covariance function is $$\mathrm{Cov}(B_s, B_t) =: a(s,t) = \min(s, t) - \frac{st}{T},$$ which is easily seen to be an element of $\mathcal{H}$ and is thus a valid reproducing kernel, as required. Note that $a(s, T) = 0$ (as required by the pinning). So far, so good.


 

However, once we pin the bridge to a non-zero final value $b = B_T$, something apparently has to change. The covariance must, of course, be the same regardless of the pinned value, but the sample space and Cameron–Martin Hilbert space are not, since they must now be pinned to $b \neq 0$. Hence the covariance function is no longer a valid reproducing kernel because it still ends at $a(s, T) = 0$, regardless of $b$, and is therefore not an element of $\mathcal{H}$ any more!

Edit: I now noticed that, of course, if the final value is pinned to $b \neq 0$, then the functions no longer form a vector space, so the question is actually much more fundamental: Is it even possible to define an abstract Wiener space in this case? If so, how?

Hence my question is: What do I need to modify to properly accommodate a non-zero pinned final value?

Since the covariance is a fundamental property of the underlying stochastic process, it seems I can't actually change anything about that, but this then implies that it will never be a reproducing kernel for the Cameron–Martin space, which seems to be a contradiction.

In fact, more generally, this must be a problem for any process that is pinned to a non-zero final value.


I thought I might be able to fudge my way out of this by applying the Cameron–Martin theorem with a simple linear drift $h(\tau) = k\tau$ with $k = b/T$ to turn the 0-pinned case into a $b$-pinned one, but this $h(\tau)$ turns out to have infinite norm $(h, h)_\mathcal{H}$ for $b \neq 0$ (which isn't surprising considering that it is not an element of the original Cameron–Martin space!).

Abstract Wiener spaces for pinned processes (e.g., Brownian Bridge)

In introductions to abstract Wiener spaces, the sample paths usually form a Banach space; so, in particular, the sum of two sample paths is a valid sample path and also an element of the Banach space. Then the Gaussian measure is constructed as a measure on this Banach space, the Cameron–Martin space is a subspace thereof, etc.

However, when the stochastic process is pinned to some non-zero value, then the addition of two sample paths no longer yields a valid sample path, hence the sample paths do not form a Banach space and the whole construction breaks down—so how are abstract Wiener spaces constructed for such pinned processes?

A simple example of this is a Brownian bridge, which is typically constructed to be pinned to zero at both time 0 and some time $T > 0$, but what if it is pinned to some value $b \neq 0$ at time $T$? Is the only way out to take the zero-pinned Wiener space and add $b\tau/T$ to every sample path? So then in a sense there is no true Wiener space for non-zero-pinned processes (since this additional term takes it out of the Banach space)? Also, how do I know that a linear drift is correct instead of some other drift function?


Note: I substantially modified this question after realizing that I had originally kind of missed the point.

added note on vector spaces (which I only realized after posting)
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It is well known that an abstract Wiener space can be constructed for the Brownian bridge pinned to 0 at both $t = 0$ and $t = T$: The sample space is the loop space of all continuous paths which start and end at 0, $C_{0,0}[0,T]$, and the Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ is its subset of absolutely continuous paths with square-integrable first derivatives under the inner product $$\left(f, g\right)_\mathcal{H} = \int_0^T \left(\dot{f} + \frac{f}{T-\tau}\right) \left(\dot{g} + \frac{g}{T-\tau}\right) \mathrm{d}\tau.$$ The covariance function is $$\mathrm{Cov}(B_s, B_t) =: a(s,t) = \min(s, t) - \frac{st}{T},$$ which is easily seen to be an element of $\mathcal{H}$ and is thus a valid reproducing kernel, as required. Note that $a(s, T) = 0$ (as required by the pinning). So far, so good.


However, once we pin the bridge to a non-zero final value $b = B_T$, something apparently has to change. The covariance must, of course, be the same regardless of the pinned value, but the sample space and Cameron–Martin Hilbert space are not, since they must now be pinned to $b \neq 0$. Hence the covariance function is no longer a valid reproducing kernel because it still ends at $a(s, T) = 0$, regardless of $b$, and is therefore not an element of $\mathcal{H}$ any more!

Edit: I now noticed that, of course, if the final value is pinned to $b \neq 0$, then the functions no longer form a vector space, so the question is actually much more fundamental: Is it even possible to define an abstract Wiener space in this case? If so, how?

Hence my question is: What do I need to modify to properly accommodate a non-zero pinned final value?

Since the covariance is a fundamental property of the underlying stochastic process, it seems I can't actually change anything about that, but this then implies that it will never be a reproducing kernel for the Cameron–Martin space, which seems to be a contradiction.

In fact, more generally, this must be a problem for any process that is pinned to a non-zero final value.


I thought I might be able to fudge my way out of this by applying the Cameron–Martin theorem with a simple linear drift $h(\tau) = k\tau$ with $k = b/T$ to turn the 0-pinned case into a $b$-pinned one, but this $h(\tau)$ turns out to have infinite norm $(h, h)_\mathcal{H}$ for $b \neq 0$ (which isn't surprising considering that it is not an element of the original Cameron–Martin space!).

It is well known that an abstract Wiener space can be constructed for the Brownian bridge pinned to 0 at both $t = 0$ and $t = T$: The sample space is the loop space of all continuous paths which start and end at 0, $C_{0,0}[0,T]$, and the Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ is its subset of absolutely continuous paths with square-integrable first derivatives under the inner product $$\left(f, g\right)_\mathcal{H} = \int_0^T \left(\dot{f} + \frac{f}{T-\tau}\right) \left(\dot{g} + \frac{g}{T-\tau}\right) \mathrm{d}\tau.$$ The covariance function is $$\mathrm{Cov}(B_s, B_t) =: a(s,t) = \min(s, t) - \frac{st}{T},$$ which is easily seen to be an element of $\mathcal{H}$ and is thus a valid reproducing kernel, as required. Note that $a(s, T) = 0$ (as required by the pinning). So far, so good.


However, once we pin the bridge to a non-zero final value $b = B_T$, something apparently has to change. The covariance must, of course, be the same regardless of the pinned value, but the sample space and Cameron–Martin Hilbert space are not, since they must now be pinned to $b \neq 0$. Hence the covariance function is no longer a valid reproducing kernel because it still ends at $a(s, T) = 0$, regardless of $b$, and is therefore not an element of $\mathcal{H}$ any more!

Hence my question is: What do I need to modify to properly accommodate a non-zero pinned final value?

Since the covariance is a fundamental property of the underlying stochastic process, it seems I can't actually change anything about that, but this then implies that it will never be a reproducing kernel for the Cameron–Martin space, which seems to be a contradiction.

In fact, more generally, this must be a problem for any process that is pinned to a non-zero final value.


I thought I might be able to fudge my way out of this by applying the Cameron–Martin theorem with a simple linear drift $h(\tau) = k\tau$ with $k = b/T$ to turn the 0-pinned case into a $b$-pinned one, but this $h(\tau)$ turns out to have infinite norm $(h, h)_\mathcal{H}$ for $b \neq 0$ (which isn't surprising considering that it is not an element of the original Cameron–Martin space!).

It is well known that an abstract Wiener space can be constructed for the Brownian bridge pinned to 0 at both $t = 0$ and $t = T$: The sample space is the loop space of all continuous paths which start and end at 0, $C_{0,0}[0,T]$, and the Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ is its subset of absolutely continuous paths with square-integrable first derivatives under the inner product $$\left(f, g\right)_\mathcal{H} = \int_0^T \left(\dot{f} + \frac{f}{T-\tau}\right) \left(\dot{g} + \frac{g}{T-\tau}\right) \mathrm{d}\tau.$$ The covariance function is $$\mathrm{Cov}(B_s, B_t) =: a(s,t) = \min(s, t) - \frac{st}{T},$$ which is easily seen to be an element of $\mathcal{H}$ and is thus a valid reproducing kernel, as required. Note that $a(s, T) = 0$ (as required by the pinning). So far, so good.


However, once we pin the bridge to a non-zero final value $b = B_T$, something apparently has to change. The covariance must, of course, be the same regardless of the pinned value, but the sample space and Cameron–Martin Hilbert space are not, since they must now be pinned to $b \neq 0$. Hence the covariance function is no longer a valid reproducing kernel because it still ends at $a(s, T) = 0$, regardless of $b$, and is therefore not an element of $\mathcal{H}$ any more!

Edit: I now noticed that, of course, if the final value is pinned to $b \neq 0$, then the functions no longer form a vector space, so the question is actually much more fundamental: Is it even possible to define an abstract Wiener space in this case? If so, how?

Hence my question is: What do I need to modify to properly accommodate a non-zero pinned final value?

Since the covariance is a fundamental property of the underlying stochastic process, it seems I can't actually change anything about that, but this then implies that it will never be a reproducing kernel for the Cameron–Martin space, which seems to be a contradiction.

In fact, more generally, this must be a problem for any process that is pinned to a non-zero final value.


I thought I might be able to fudge my way out of this by applying the Cameron–Martin theorem with a simple linear drift $h(\tau) = k\tau$ with $k = b/T$ to turn the 0-pinned case into a $b$-pinned one, but this $h(\tau)$ turns out to have infinite norm $(h, h)_\mathcal{H}$ for $b \neq 0$ (which isn't surprising considering that it is not an element of the original Cameron–Martin space!).

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Brownian bridge: Reproducing kernel when pinned to non-zero final value

It is well known that an abstract Wiener space can be constructed for the Brownian bridge pinned to 0 at both $t = 0$ and $t = T$: The sample space is the loop space of all continuous paths which start and end at 0, $C_{0,0}[0,T]$, and the Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ is its subset of absolutely continuous paths with square-integrable first derivatives under the inner product $$\left(f, g\right)_\mathcal{H} = \int_0^T \left(\dot{f} + \frac{f}{T-\tau}\right) \left(\dot{g} + \frac{g}{T-\tau}\right) \mathrm{d}\tau.$$ The covariance function is $$\mathrm{Cov}(B_s, B_t) =: a(s,t) = \min(s, t) - \frac{st}{T},$$ which is easily seen to be an element of $\mathcal{H}$ and is thus a valid reproducing kernel, as required. Note that $a(s, T) = 0$ (as required by the pinning). So far, so good.


However, once we pin the bridge to a non-zero final value $b = B_T$, something apparently has to change. The covariance must, of course, be the same regardless of the pinned value, but the sample space and Cameron–Martin Hilbert space are not, since they must now be pinned to $b \neq 0$. Hence the covariance function is no longer a valid reproducing kernel because it still ends at $a(s, T) = 0$, regardless of $b$, and is therefore not an element of $\mathcal{H}$ any more!

Hence my question is: What do I need to modify to properly accommodate a non-zero pinned final value?

Since the covariance is a fundamental property of the underlying stochastic process, it seems I can't actually change anything about that, but this then implies that it will never be a reproducing kernel for the Cameron–Martin space, which seems to be a contradiction.

In fact, more generally, this must be a problem for any process that is pinned to a non-zero final value.


I thought I might be able to fudge my way out of this by applying the Cameron–Martin theorem with a simple linear drift $h(\tau) = k\tau$ with $k = b/T$ to turn the 0-pinned case into a $b$-pinned one, but this $h(\tau)$ turns out to have infinite norm $(h, h)_\mathcal{H}$ for $b \neq 0$ (which isn't surprising considering that it is not an element of the original Cameron–Martin space!).