2
$\begingroup$

This may be a very silly question but I could not get any counter-example.

Let $M$ be a compact differential $4$-manifold with boundary $dM$. Suppose that the inclusion map induced map $\pi_1(dM) \to \pi_1(M)$ is an isomorphism. Is $dM$ always simply connected?

Thanks in advance!!

$\endgroup$
6
  • 4
    $\begingroup$ It is not always simply connected. For a counter example. take a product of a closed $3$-ball and $S^1$. $\endgroup$
    – Nick L
    Commented Oct 8, 2022 at 15:29
  • $\begingroup$ @NickL's comment is exactly right. But in some sense most $3$-manifolds are not boundaries in this sense. By this I mean that if $Y$ is aspherical, then it represents the generator of $H_3(K(\pi_1(Y),1) = Z$, and so can't bound a $4$-manifold with the inclusion map being an isomorphism. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 9, 2022 at 1:46
  • $\begingroup$ @DannyRuberman - Maybe I'm missing something obvious, but why does this imply that $Y$ can't bound a 4-manifold with an isomorphism of $\pi_1$s? (I can see the problem if the question asked for an isomorphism of all homotopy groups.) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 10, 2022 at 3:44
  • $\begingroup$ @GregFriedman My thought was that if $Y$ is aspherical, then $K(\pi_1,1) = Y$. If $Y = \partial X$ with the inclusion map an iso on $\pi_1$, then $X$ maps to $K(\pi_1,1)$ extending the identification. This is a retraction of $X$ onto $Y$, which can't happen by an obvious degree argument. Maybe I'm missing something too! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 10, 2022 at 5:38
  • $\begingroup$ @DannyRuberman Ah, I wasn't thinking about reversing the map to go from $X$ to $Y$. Good idea! (Now I have to think about that degree argument...) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 11, 2022 at 6:09

1 Answer 1

4
$\begingroup$

This is a substantially more interesting question than the votes indicate; while the initial phrasing is more naive than the real situation permits, a slight generalization is indeed true. The answer below is a slight enhancement of Danny Ruberman's comment.

Theorem. If $Y$ is a closed orientable 3-manifold and $W$ is a compact 4-manifold with $\partial W = Y$ and for which the homomorphism $i_*: \pi_1(Y) \to \pi_1(W)$ admits a retraction $r: \pi_1(W) \to \pi_1(Y)$ with $ri_* = 1_{\pi_1(Y)}$, then in fact $Y \cong \#^m (S^1 \times S^2)$ for some $m \ge 0$, and in particular $\pi_1(Y)$ is free.

The general obstruction is as follows. Whenever you have a pair $(X,\rho)$ of a CW-complex $X$ and a homomorphism $\rho: \pi_1(X) \to G$, you get a map $K\rho: X \to K(G,1)$, well-defined up to homotopy (define it cell-by-cell). The same is true for pairs $(X,Y,f_X, f_Y)$ where $i: Y \hookrightarrow X$ is a subcomplex and $f_X i_* = f_Y$; you obtain a map $Kf_X: X \to K(G,1)$ which restricts to $Kf_Y$ on the subcomplex $Y$.

When $Y$ is a closed oriented $n$-manifold, it has a fundamental class $[Y] \in H_n(Y;A)$ for any coefficient group $A$. Pushing this forward to $K(\pi_1 Y, 1)$, we obtain a group homology class $[Y] \in H_n(\pi_1 Y; A)$ for any coefficients $A$.

If $Y$ is the boundary of a compact oriented $(n+1)$-manifold $W$, the image of $[Y]$ in $H_n(W;A)$ is zero. Now suppose there exists a retraction $r: \pi_1(W) \to \pi_1(Y)$. Then the construction above defines a map of pairs $(W,Y) \to K(\pi_1 Y, 1)$, and naturality together with the fact that $[Y] = 0$ in $H_n(W;A)$ implies that when this is true, $[Y] = 0 \in H_n(\pi_1 Y; A)$.

Our aim is to show that when $n=3$ this is true if and only if $Y = \#^n (S^1 \times S^2)$.


This argument splits into three parts: the aspherical case, the spherical case, and the case of connected sums.

Proposition 1. If $Y$ is an aspherical closed $n$-manifold, then $[Y] \in H_n(\pi_1 Y; A)$ is nonzero for any coefficients $A$.

Proof: The assumption that $Y$ is aspherical means $K(\pi_1 Y, 1) = Y$, and this is simply its fundamental class; that this is nonzero is part of the statement of Poincare duality.

Proposition 2. Suppose $\Gamma$ acts orthogonally and freely on some sphere $S^n = S(\Bbb R^{n+1})$ for $n$ odd. Then $[S^n/\Gamma] \ne 0 \in H_n(\Gamma; A)$ for any coefficients $A$.

Proof: In this situation, one may obtain a CW model for $K(\Gamma, 1)$ so that $S^n/\Gamma$ is its $n$-skeleton and the attaching map $C_{n+1}^{CW} K(\Gamma,1) \to C_n^{CW} K(\Gamma, 1)$ is zero; one thinks of $K(\Gamma, 1)$ as the quotient of $S(\bigoplus_{k \in \Bbb N} \Bbb R^{n+1}) = S^\infty$. In particular, the inclusion of this subcomplex induces an isomorphism on homology in degrees $\le n$. I cannot find a precise reference right now, but this is a long-established fact in the study of group homology.

To state the next proposition, observe that $K(G * H, 1) = K(G,1) \vee K(H,1)$ eg see here, so there is a natural isomorphism $H_n(G * H; A) \cong H_n(G; A) \oplus H_n(G; A)$.

Proposition 3. If $Y = [Y_1 \# \cdots \# Y_m]$ is a connected sum of $n$-manifolds for $n>2$, then $[Y] = \oplus_i [Y_i] \in \bigoplus_i H_n(\pi_1 Y_i;A)$, so is vanishing if and only if all $[Y_i] = 0$.

Proof: The relevance of $n > 2$ is to ensure $\pi_1(Y) = \pi_1(Y_1) * \cdots * \pi_1(Y_m)$. The natural map $Y \to Y_1 \vee \cdots \vee Y_m$ composes with the maps $Y_i \to K(\pi_1 Y_i, 1)$ to give the map $Y \to K(\pi_1 Y, 1)$, and the first map sends $[Y]$ to $\bigoplus [Y_i]$.


Corollary. If $Y$ is a closed oriented 3-manifold for which $[Y] = 0$, we have $Y = \#^m (S^1 \times S^2)$ for some $m \ge 0$.

Proof: We may write $Y = \#_{i=1}^m Y_i$ for $m \ge 0$ and all $Y_i$ prime 3-manifolds by the existence of a (unique) connected sum decomposition; the assumption $[Y] = 0$ implies $[Y_i] = 0$ for all $i$ by Proposition 3. A prime 3-manifold takes one of three forms:

  • It is prime not but not irreducible, so $S^1 \times S^2$ (Hatcher 3mfd notes Prop 1.4).
  • It is irreducible with infinite fundamental group, hence aspherical (Hatcher 3mfd notes Corollary 3.9a).
  • It is irreducible with finite fundamental group, hence its universal cover is a homotopy sphere (Hatcher 3mfd notes Corollary 3.9b), hence it is a spherical space form (Perelman's elliptization theorem), hence quotient of $S^3$ by a free orthogonal action.

In the last two cases, the group homology fundamental class is nontrivial by Props 1 and 2, respectively. So we each $Y_i$ lies in the first case, and $Y = \#^m (S^1 \times S^2)$ as claimed.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Probably this extends to non-orientable $Y$ and the result is that $Y$ is a sum of $S^1 \times S^2$'s and $S^1 \widetilde{\times} S^2$'s, the latter being the 3-dimensional Klein bottle. In particular, $\pi_1 Y$ should be free without orientability assumptions. The argument should run along the same lines, but I didn't want to chase references. $\endgroup$
    – mme
    Commented Oct 11, 2022 at 12:52
  • $\begingroup$ In particular Nick L's counterexample is in some sense the only one. All other counterexamples can be made by slight modifications (boundary sums and if you want non-orientable manifolds, allowing for B^3 bundles over the circle instead of just the product). $\endgroup$
    – mme
    Commented Oct 11, 2022 at 12:53
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thanks for doing this. I'd kind of sketched it out in my head but couldn't find the time to write it down. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 12, 2022 at 0:11
  • $\begingroup$ A better proof of Proposition 2 is available here. $\endgroup$
    – mme
    Commented Nov 22, 2022 at 23:44

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .