There are probably 101 reasons why this argument is plain wrong.
At the same time however there probably is a subtle truth to it I imagine:
We note that $\sin(x) \in \mathbb{Q}[[x]]$
Suppose $\pi$ is algebraic. Let $f(x)$ be the minimal polynomial with one root being $\pi$.
Then $f(x) | \sin(x)$. Note all the roots of $\sin(x)$ are of the form $k\cdot \pi$ where $k \in \mathbb{Q}$ .
So lets us consider the field $K/\mathbb{Q}$ which is the Galois Closure of $\mathbb{Q}(\pi)/\mathbb{Q}$
Let $G=Gal(K/\mathbb{Q})$ and for all $\sigma \in G$ we have $\sigma(\pi) = k \cdot \pi$ for some $k \in \mathbb{Q}$.
Now from this it follows that $N_{K/\mathbb{Q}}(\pi)=Q_1 \cdot \pi^{n} = Q_2$
Where quite obviously $n=[K:\mathbb{Q}]$ and $Q_1, Q_2 \in \mathbb{Q}$.
So you get then that if $\pi$ is algebraic then $\pi = \sqrt[n]{Q}$ where $Q \in \mathbb{Q}$
So it follows then that $K=\mathbb{Q}(\pi, \zeta_n)$
Also note then that $\sigma(\pi)={\zeta_n}^a \cdot \pi$ for some $a \in \mathbb{Z}$
By the argument before we have that ${\zeta_n}^a \in \mathbb{Q}$
So we must conclude that $\mathbb{Q}(\pi) = \mathbb{Q}$
Conclusion: $\pi$ is algebraic $\Leftrightarrow$ $\pi \in \mathbb{Q}$
Love to know what you all think of it, criticisms et all.
Thank You!!!